ATI LPN
ATI PN Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2020 Questions
Question 1 of 5
What complication of his original lesion best explains his heart failure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 12-year-old with a small ventricular septal defect (VS
D) presents with heart failure, a pansystolic murmur, and an early diastolic murmur, suggesting aortic valve regurgitation (
Choice
B). Over time, a VSD can distort the aortic root, leading to aortic regurgitation, increased left ventricular volume, and heart failure. Acute rheumatic fever (
Choice
A) requires fever and inflammation, absent here. Eisenmenger syndrome (
Choice
C) involves cyanosis from shunt reversal, not present. An increasing left-to-right shunt (
Choice
D) wouldn’t cause a diastolic murmur. Aortic regurgitation fits the clinical findings.
Question 2 of 5
The most important preventable cause of blindness in the world is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Trachoma is the leading preventable cause of blindness globally, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, treatable with antibiotics and preventable through hygiene (WHO data). Glaucoma is significant but less preventable on a global scale. Retinoblastoma and optic nerve glioma are rare cancers, not primary preventable causes. Eye injury is notable but less prevalent than trachoma.
Question 3 of 5
The best diagnostic clue of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Isolation of M. tuberculosis from culture is the gold standard for TB diagnosis, providing definitive evidence (CD
C). Options B-E are supportive but less specific.
Question 4 of 5
Most common organism responsible for acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enterovirus 70 is the primary cause of acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, known for outbreaks with hemorrhage (WHO). Other viruses (B-E) are less common.
Question 5 of 5
A 16-month-old boy refuses to eat properly. His mother stated that he was eating properly up to 12 months of age. She started a part time job 2 months ago. She is extremely concerned. The boy is very active. The next step in management is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Reassurance suits an active 16-month-old with reduced appetite, possibly due to maternal stress or toddler phase (AAP). A-D are unnecessary without deficiency.