ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.' Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. This side effect is harmless and does not indicate a need to stop the medication.
Choice A is incorrect because stopping isoniazid will not resolve the orange urine discoloration caused by rifampin.
Choice C is unnecessary at this point since the orange urine is a known side effect of rifampin and does not require an urgent provider visit.
Choice D is incorrect because bladder irritation is not typically associated with isoniazid.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect.
Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram. Amitriptyline can cause cardiac arrhythmias, so an electrocardiogram is necessary before starting treatment. A hearing examination (choice
A) is not required before initiating amitriptyline. A glucose tolerance test (choice
B) is not indicated for starting this medication. Pulmonary function tests (choice
D) are not necessary before initiating amitriptyline for depression.
Question 4 of 5
A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (
Choice
A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (
Choice
C) and Misoprostol (
Choice
D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.
Question 5 of 5
A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's apical pulse. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and one of the early signs of digoxin toxicity is changes in the pulse rate. By checking the client's apical pulse, the nurse can assess if the digoxin level is too high. Encouraging the client to eat or administering an antiemetic may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. While informing the provider is important, assessing the client's condition through checking the apical pulse should be the immediate priority.