ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, abruptio placentae. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, common at 36 weeks gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Placenta previa (
A) presents painless bleeding, prolapsed cord (
B) involves cord presenting before the fetus, and incompetent cervix (
C) leads to painless dilation of the cervix. Thus, abruptio placentae is the most likely complication in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct interpretation of 0 station is that the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines. This indicates the descent of the fetus into the birth canal. At 0 station, the presenting part has not yet passed through the pelvic outlet, ruling out choice B.
Choices A and C are incorrect as they refer to different aspects of fetal positioning and fontanel palpation, not specifically related to station.
Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the position of the fetus in the birth canal.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating a client with severe preeclampsia can be risky due to the potential for sudden worsening of symptoms and complications like seizures. It is important to prioritize rest and close monitoring in such cases. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour (
A) is crucial as changes can indicate neurological involvement. Obtaining a daily weight (
B) helps monitor fluid status. Continuous fetal monitoring (
C) is necessary to assess the well-being of the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. In summary, ambulating the client with severe preeclampsia is the most concerning order as it may pose a significant risk to both the client and the fetus.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the arms due to the pressure build-up before the narrowing and decreased blood pressure in the legs due to reduced blood flow beyond the narrowing. This pressure difference is a classic clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiology of coarctation of the aorta. B is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in the arms is not typical. C is incorrect as increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs does not reflect the characteristic pressure difference caused by the aortic narrowing. D is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not consistent with the presentation of coarctation of the aorta.
Question 5 of 5
During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a Leopold maneuver, if the healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position, it means the fetal back is on the right side, and the small parts are on the left side, indicating a breech presentation.
Therefore, the correct answer is C: Breech. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Vertex refers to the head-first position.
B: Shoulder presentation would involve feeling the shoulder first during the maneuver.
D: Mentum presentation would involve feeling the chin first, which is not the case in an RSA position.