ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This side effect can be bothersome and non-productive. Other choices are incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of lisinopril but rather a side effect of some other antihypertensive medications. Tachycardia is not associated with lisinopril; in fact, it can cause bradycardia in some cases. Hyperglycemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril and is more commonly associated with other classes of antihypertensive medications.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the cardiac membrane in hyperkalemia, preventing dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. It does not lower potassium levels but helps protect the heart.
B: Encouraging a diet high in potassium would worsen hyperkalemia.
C: Providing potassium supplements would further elevate potassium levels.
D: Restricting sodium intake does not directly address hyperkalemia.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3. A low white blood cell count indicates leukopenia, which increases the risk of infection in clients receiving chemotherapy. Hemoglobin level (choice
A) and platelet count (choice
B) are not directly related to infection risk. Serum creatinine level (choice
D) is related to kidney function, not infection risk. In summary, a low white blood cell count is the most critical indicator for infection risk in clients undergoing chemotherapy.
Question 4 of 5
When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice
B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction.
Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.
Question 5 of 5
A client with Parkinson's disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should be included to address the client's bradykinesia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage daily walking. Bradykinesia in Parkinson's disease refers to slowness of movement. Walking helps improve coordination, balance, and overall mobility in clients with Parkinson's. It promotes muscle strength and flexibility, counteracting the effects of bradykinesia. Walking also stimulates dopamine release, which is reduced in Parkinson's.
Choice B is incorrect as thickened liquids are for dysphagia, not bradykinesia.
Choice C is incorrect as meal frequency does not directly address bradykinesia.
Choice D is incorrect as adaptive utensils help with fine motor skills, not slowness of movement.