ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Questions
Question 1 of 5
How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a suspected stroke?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected
Rationale: When managing a patient with a suspected stroke, it is crucial to monitor for changes in neurological status as this can provide important information about the patient's condition. Administering thrombolytics, if indicated, is a critical intervention in the acute phase of an ischemic stroke to help dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow to the brain. This choice is the correct answer because it addresses the immediate management needs of a patient with a suspected stroke.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring for speech difficulties, administering oxygen, providing IV fluids, monitoring blood pressure, administering pain relief, and monitoring for respiratory failure are important aspects of patient care, they are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected stroke.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
What is the priority nursing action for a patient with an acute asthma attack?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a bronchodilator. During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve breathing. Bronchodilators are the first-line treatment for asthma attacks as they help dilate the bronchioles, allowing for better airflow. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not the priority when the patient is in distress. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position can help with breathing but is not the initial priority. Calling for assistance can be done after initiating the appropriate treatment.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers.
Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers.
Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.
Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.
Question 5 of 5
A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.