ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.
Question 2 of 5
A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is planning a staff education program to review nursing interventions for patients who have kidney failure. What source should the nurse identify as the best source for obtaining evidence-based practice information?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A recent peer-reviewed nursing research article. Peer-reviewed research articles provide the most current and reliable evidence-based practice information for clinical care. Choice B, a website for a nursing association, may have valuable information but may not always guarantee the highest level of evidence. Choice C, a textbook published 5 years ago, may not reflect the most up-to-date practices and guidelines. Choice D, an expert opinion from a seasoned nurse, though valuable, is not as reliable as evidence derived from peer-reviewed research articles.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.