ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical Questions
Question 1 of 9
While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately. The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, as evidenced by decreased deep tendon reflexes, bradypnea (respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute), oliguria (urinary output of 90 ml in 4 hours), and elevated magnesium sulfate level of 9 mg/dl. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications such as respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and central nervous system depression. Continuing the infusion (choice A) would worsen the toxicity. Decreasing the infusion (choice B) may not be sufficient to address the toxicity. Administering calcium gluconate (choice D) is not the immediate priority; stopping the magnesium sulfate infusion is essential to prevent further harm.
Question 2 of 9
When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a pneumothorax with a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. A pneumothorax can lead to decreased oxygenation, which is critical for the client's health and needs prompt intervention. Checking this client first is essential to ensure timely management and prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dl in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, while elevated, does not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory compromise. Choice B is incorrect as a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch does not indicate an urgent situation or immediate risk to the client's health. Choice C is incorrect as serosanguinous drainage in a chest tube post-triple coronary bypass, while requiring monitoring, does not indicate an immediate need for intervention compared to a potential respiratory compromise in choice D.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease heart rate. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate. This helps reduce the workload of the heart and improve its efficiency in patients with heart failure. Choice A is incorrect because carvedilol may not necessarily increase cardiac output directly. Choice B is incorrect because carvedilol focuses more on improving heart function rather than directly reducing fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect because while carvedilol may lower blood pressure as a secondary effect, its primary purpose in heart failure is to improve cardiac function by decreasing heart rate.
Question 4 of 9
Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy. After a CVA, dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen indicate a risk for aspiration and bowel obstruction. Continuous tube feeding may worsen these issues. Option B provides nutrition intravenously, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract. Option C helps decompress the stomach. Option D is a medication to help with GI motility. Therefore, the nurse should question option A due to the risk of complications post-CVA.
Question 5 of 9
An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return by preventing blood from pooling in the legs, reducing venous congestion. This behavior promotes circulation and decreases the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address venous congestion or circulation improvement, making them incorrect options. Avoiding trauma and irritation to the skin (B) is important for skin integrity but not specifically for venous congestion. Wearing protective shoes (C) is related to preventing foot injuries but does not directly impact venous congestion. Quitting smoking (D) is beneficial for overall health but does not directly target venous congestion.
Question 6 of 9
What is an important teaching point for a patient prescribed dabigatran for atrial fibrillation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Dabigatran is an anticoagulant medication that comes in capsules, which should not be crushed or chewed to maintain its extended-release formulation. 2. Crushing or chewing the capsules can lead to an increased risk of bleeding due to rapid release of the medication. 3. Therefore, advising the patient not to crush or chew the capsules is crucial to ensure the safety and efficacy of dabigatran therapy. Summary: A: Taking with food is not necessary for dabigatran absorption. C: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with anticoagulant therapy. D: There is no need to avoid all dairy products while taking dabigatran.
Question 7 of 9
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C is the correct answer. Ranitidine is usually taken on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. Therefore, taking it with meals would decrease its efficacy. A, B, and D are incorrect because taking ranitidine at bedtime is common practice, smoking can worsen ulcer symptoms, and ranitidine does indeed reduce stomach acid.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relieve neuropathic pain. Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. It is effective in conditions such as diabetic neuropathy and postherpetic neuralgia. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Choice C is incorrect as gabapentin does not enhance opioid analgesia, but it can be used in conjunction with opioids for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as gabapentin is not indicated for cough suppression.
Question 9 of 9
While assessing a client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse observes an absence of hair growth on the client's legs. What additional assessment provides further data to support this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Observe the appearance of the skin on the client's legs. In clients with diabetes mellitus, poor circulation can lead to decreased hair growth on the legs. By observing the skin appearance, the nurse can look for signs of poor circulation such as dry skin, thinning of the skin, or discoloration. This assessment provides further data to support the finding of absent hair growth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the assessment of absent hair growth in clients with diabetes mellitus. Palpating for femoral pulses assesses circulation but does not specifically address the absence of hair growth. Assessing for Homan's sign evaluates for deep vein thrombosis, which is not directly related to hair growth. Watching posture and balance during ambulation assesses mobility and stability but does not provide information on hair growth or circulation in the legs.