Which vitamin deficiency in the pregnant woman may cause neural tube defects?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Folic Acid. Folic Acid deficiency during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects in the developing fetus. Folic acid is crucial for proper neural tube formation in early pregnancy. Niacin (A), Riboflavin (B), and Thiamine (D) deficiencies do not directly impact neural tube development. Niacin is important for energy production, riboflavin for cell growth and function, and thiamine for nerve function, but they do not specifically affect neural tube closure like folic acid does.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent anemia. Iron supplementation in pregnant women is primarily aimed at preventing iron-deficiency anemia, a common condition during pregnancy due to increased demand for iron. Anemia can lead to complications for both the mother and the fetus, such as low birth weight and preterm birth. Providing iron helps maintain adequate hemoglobin levels for optimal oxygen transport. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Supporting fetal growth is an important aspect of prenatal care, but iron supplementation specifically targets preventing anemia. C: While iron deficiency may contribute to premature labor, the primary purpose of iron supplementation is to prevent anemia. D: Postpartum hemorrhage risk is more related to factors such as uterine atony and trauma during childbirth, not directly impacted by iron supplementation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lagundi. Lagundi is commonly used for treating fever, headache, and cough due to its anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties. It contains compounds that help reduce inflammation, alleviate pain, and act as a cough suppressant. Sambong (A) is primarily used for kidney disorders, Tsaang gubat (B) is known for its antidiarrheal properties, and Akapulko (C) is used to treat skin diseases. Therefore, Lagundi is the most appropriate choice for the given symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the crude death rate, divide the total number of deaths by the total population and then multiply by 1000. In this case, 94 deaths out of 18,000 population is (94/18000)*1000 = 5.2/1000. This is the correct answer (B). Choice A (4.1/1000) is incorrect as it underestimates the death rate. Choice C (6.3/1000) and D (7.3/1000) are both overestimations of the death rate based on the given data.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnitude of the health problem. In community health care, prioritizing based on the magnitude of the health problem is crucial as it helps identify issues affecting a large number of individuals. By addressing high-impact problems first, resources can be maximized to benefit the community as a whole. Modifiability (A) is important but not unique to community health. Nature of the problem (B) can vary and may not always indicate priority. Preventive potential (D) is valuable but does not solely determine priority in community health care.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because individuals who have had a delivery within the past 15 months are at higher risk for closely spaced pregnancies, which may pose health risks for both the mother and the newborn. It is crucial to allow the body to recover adequately between pregnancies to reduce maternal and infant mortality rates. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically address the need for spacing pregnancies and do not highlight the increased health risks associated with closely spaced pregnancies.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Target/client list is most useful as it provides a comprehensive list of clients in long-term regimens. Step 2: It allows for easy monitoring of individual progress and adherence to treatment plans. Step 3: Tally report (A) only provides a count, lacking specific client information. Step 4: Output report (B) may not include all necessary client details. Step 5: Individual health record (D) is specific to one client, not ideal for overall monitoring.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Letter of Instruction No. 949. This document issued by the Philippine government in 1979 officially adopted the Primary Health Care (PHC) approach. It outlined the strategies and framework for implementing PHC nationwide. The Alma Ata Declaration on PHC (A) is a global agreement but not the legal basis in the Philippines. Presidential Decree No. 147 (C) and Presidential Decree No. 996 (D) do not specifically address the PHC approach. Therefore, the legal basis for PHC in the Philippines is Letter of Instruction No. 949.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The OB score G5P3 means the client has had 5 pregnancies with 3 live births. This indicates a history of multiple pregnancies and deliveries, suggesting a higher risk for complications during labor. This would disqualify her for a home delivery due to the increased potential for obstetric emergencies. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Palmar pallor may indicate anemia but can be managed in a hospital setting. - C: Blood pressure of 130/80 is within normal range and does not necessarily disqualify her for a home delivery. - D: Cephalic presentation means the baby's head is down, which is a favorable position for delivery and does not disqualify her for a home birth.