ATI LPN
Assessment of Hematologic System NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which organ is adversely affected in hemolytic anemia? Select one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In hemolytic anemia, the red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to an increased workload for the spleen as it tries to remove these damaged cells. The correct answer is C, the Small intestine. This is because the small intestine is not directly involved in the clearance or processing of red blood cells, unlike the spleen, liver, and bladder. The spleen and liver play key roles in recycling components of red blood cells, while the bladder is not involved in the process at all. Therefore, the small intestine is the organ that is least likely to be adversely affected in hemolytic anemia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse in a clinic is assessing the lower extremities and ankles of a client who has a history of peripheral arterial disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry, pale skin with minimal body hair. In peripheral arterial disease, there is reduced blood flow to the extremities, leading to decreased oxygen and nutrients reaching the skin and hair follicles, resulting in dry, pale skin and reduced body hair. The lack of blood flow causes skin to appear pale due to reduced oxygenation. Additionally, decreased blood flow can lead to reduced hair growth. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm, red skin is more indicative of inflammation or infection. Swollen ankles are often seen in conditions such as heart failure or venous insufficiency. Thickened toenails are commonly seen in fungal infections or trauma to the nails.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has an abdominal aortic aneurysm and is scheduled for surgery. The client's vital signs are blood pressure 160/98 mm Hg, heart rate 102/min, respirations 22/min, and SpO2 95%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antihypertensive medication for blood pressure. Step-by-step rationale: 1. An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a serious condition that can lead to rupture if not managed properly. 2. The client's elevated blood pressure of 160/98 mm Hg can increase the risk of rupture. 3. Administering antihypertensive medication can help lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of rupture. 4. By managing the blood pressure, the nurse is helping to stabilize the client before surgery. Summary of other choices: B: Increasing IV fluids may not directly address the elevated blood pressure and can potentially worsen the situation. C: Monitoring without intervention may lead to a missed opportunity to prevent a potential rupture. D: Administering oxygen is not the priority action in this scenario; addressing the elevated blood pressure is crucial.
Question 4 of 5
What is a common use of NSAIDs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To manage acute gout attacks. NSAIDs are commonly used in managing gout due to their anti-inflammatory properties, helping to reduce pain and swelling during acute attacks. NSAIDs do not treat osteoporosis (A), increase platelet production (C), or stimulate appetite (D). It is important to choose NSAIDs carefully based on individual factors such as medical history and potential side effects.
Question 5 of 5
What is a side effect of leflunomide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hair loss. Leflunomide is known to cause hair loss as a side effect due to its impact on the hair follicles. This is a common adverse reaction and can occur in some individuals taking leflunomide. Pulmonary fibrosis (B), retinal damage (C), and hepatotoxicity (D) are not typically associated with leflunomide use. Pulmonary fibrosis is more commonly linked to certain medications like methotrexate, while retinal damage and hepatotoxicity are not common side effects of leflunomide.