ATI LPN
Immune System Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following would correlate with an elevated ESR value?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inflammation. ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a specific period, which can be elevated in conditions causing inflammation. Inflammation triggers the release of acute-phase proteins, increasing the ESR. Osteoarthritis (A) is a degenerative joint disease and does not typically cause significant inflammation. Polycythemia (B) is an increase in red blood cells, not directly related to ESR. Decreased globulins (C) would not lead to an elevated ESR as it is associated with conditions like multiple myeloma or liver disease.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat... 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103°F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: an IgG-IgM response to penicillin. 1. The symptoms of fever, rash, and proteinuria are suggestive of a hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin. 2. The timing of 7 days after penicillin initiation is consistent with a delayed hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies. 3. Recurrence of rheumatic fever typically occurs weeks to months after the initial episode, making choice A incorrect. 4. Choice B is unlikely given the temporal relationship with penicillin therapy. 5. Choice C is incorrect as an IgE response would present as an immediate hypersensitivity reaction, not after 7 days.
Question 3 of 5
Polyomavirus causes tumors in 'nude mice' but not in normal mice, the BEST interpretation is that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because T lymphocytes play a crucial role in the rejection of polyomavirus-induced tumors. This is evident from the fact that nude mice, which lack functional T lymphocytes, develop tumors when infected with polyomavirus, whereas normal mice with intact T lymphocytes do not. Choice A is incorrect because macrophages are not the main players in rejecting these tumors. Choice B is incorrect as natural killer cells alone cannot reject these tumors without the help of T lymphocytes. Choice D is incorrect as B lymphocytes may also contribute to the rejection process, although they are not the primary effector cells in this context.
Question 4 of 5
A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hypersensitivity reaction) indicates that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive tuberculin skin test indicates a cell-mediated immune response. This is because the test measures the response of T cells to the antigen, which is indicative of an active cellular immune response against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Option A is incorrect as it refers to a humoral immune response involving antibodies produced by B cells. Option C is incorrect because the test specifically assesses T cell function, not both T and B cells. Option D is incorrect as it implies that only B cells are responsible for the positive skin test, which is not the case.
Question 5 of 5
Which one of the following sequences is appropriate for testing a patient for antibody against the AIDS virus with the ELISA procedure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for testing a patient for antibody against the AIDS virus with the ELISA procedure is B. Step 1: HIV antigen is immobilized on a solid surface. Step 2: Patient's serum containing antibodies is added. Step 3: Enzyme-labeled antibody against human gamma globulin is added to detect patient antibodies. Step 4: Enzyme substrate is added to produce a measurable signal. This sequence allows for the detection of patient antibodies against the HIV antigen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct order of steps for an ELISA test. In these options, the order of the components is not suitable for detecting antibodies in the patient's serum effectively.