ATI LPN
Immune System Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following structural defects constitute tetralogy of Fallot?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In Tetralogy of Fallot, the four structural defects are: pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary stenosis leads to decreased blood flow to the lungs, ventricular septal defect causes mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, overriding aorta results in blood from both ventricles entering the aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy occurs due to increased workload in pumping blood through the stenotic pulmonary valve. Choices B, C, and D do not include the correct combination of structural defects seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
Question 2 of 5
Examples of granulocytes include all of the following except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: monocyte. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm. Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are all examples of granulocytes. Monocytes, on the other hand, are agranulocytes, lacking these granules. Monocytes are known for their role in immune response and inflammation. Therefore, monocyte does not belong to the category of granulocytes.
Question 3 of 5
Vaccination is best described as prevention of severe disease by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because vaccination involves prior exposure to an infectious agent in an attenuated or weakened form. This exposure triggers the immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells, providing immunity against future infections. Choice A is incorrect as deliberately introducing a virulent strain can lead to severe disease instead of prevention. Choice C is incorrect as antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not prevent viral diseases like vaccines. Choice D is incorrect as vaccines primarily stimulate adaptive immune responses, not innate immune responses.
Question 4 of 5
The primary healthcare provider (PCHP) has told the client that their neutrophil count is low (neutropenia). The nurse is aware this means the patient is at risk for which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: infection. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell responsible for fighting off infections. A low neutrophil count puts the client at risk for developing infections as their body's ability to fight off pathogens is compromised. Anemia (choice A) is related to low red blood cells, not white blood cells like neutrophils. Blood clots (choice B) and hemorrhage (choice C) are more related to platelets and clotting factors, not neutrophil count. Therefore, the correct answer is D as the primary concern with neutropenia is the increased susceptibility to infections.
Question 5 of 5
Which clinical situation may increase the risk of blood transfusion reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Multiple blood transfusions. Receiving multiple blood transfusions increases the risk of developing antibodies against donor blood, leading to transfusion reactions. Iron-deficiency anemia (B) and low RBC count (D) are conditions that may necessitate blood transfusions but do not inherently increase the risk of transfusion reactions. Completing a cross and match blood test (C) is a standard procedure to ensure compatibility and reduce the risk of reactions, thus it does not increase the risk of a transfusion reaction.