ATI LPN
Quiz Questions Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following should the nurse expect to note as a frequent complication for a child with congenital heart disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Susceptibility to respiratory infection. Children with congenital heart disease often have compromised immune systems due to their cardiac condition, making them more prone to respiratory infections. This is because the heart defect can affect blood flow to the lungs, leading to decreased oxygen levels and weakened lung function. As a result, these children are at higher risk for respiratory complications. Incorrect choices: B: Bleeding tendencies - While some heart conditions may lead to clotting issues, bleeding tendencies are not a frequent complication of congenital heart disease. C: Frequent vomiting and diarrhea - These symptoms are not typically associated with congenital heart disease, unless there are specific underlying conditions causing them. D: Seizure disorder - Seizures are not a common complication of congenital heart disease; they are more often related to neurological issues or other medical conditions.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because helper T cells do not directly kill pathogen-infected cells. Helper T cells assist in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells. T-cell activation involves cell division and differentiation (Choice A), effector B cells differentiate into plasma cells to secrete antibodies (Choice B), and plasma cells are responsible for antibody secretion (Choice C). Therefore, the mismatched pair is helper T cell: kills pathogen-infected cells.
Question 3 of 5
While the nurse is aware that blood type O is the universal donor, the nurse should also know that patients with blood type O can only receive which blood type?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blood type O individuals can only receive blood type O due to the presence of antibodies against blood types A and B. Since blood type O lacks A and B antigens, it is safe for individuals with blood type O to receive only blood type O. Choice A (A) contains A antigens, choice B (B) contains B antigens, and choice C (AB) contains both A and B antigens, making them incompatible with blood type O.
Question 4 of 5
Which patient exhibits signs and symptoms of hemochromatosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hemochromatosis is a condition characterized by excessive iron absorption leading to iron overload. The 47-year-old male with fatigue, weight loss, bronzing of the skin (due to iron deposition), and elevated TIBC fits the typical presentation. Fatigue is common due to iron accumulation affecting various organs. Weight loss can occur due to organ damage. Bronzing of the skin is a classic sign. Elevated TIBC indicates the body's attempt to bind excess iron. Choices B, C, and D do not exhibit the classic signs and symptoms of hemochromatosis and are thus incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular radial pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as atrial flutter?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because atrial flutter typically presents with an atrial rate of 250-400/min and a ventricular rate that may vary. In this case, an atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min indicates a 3:1 AV block, which is characteristic of atrial flutter. Choice B (absent P waves with irregular QRS) is more indicative of atrial fibrillation. Choice C (ventricular rate of 150/min) does not provide specific information about the atrial activity to diagnose atrial flutter. Choice D (ST elevation) is not typically associated with atrial flutter.