ATI LPN
Neurological Assessment Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following provides about two thirds of the 59 diopters of refractive power of the eye?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The anterior cornea provides ~40 diopters due to its refractive index difference with air. TMP13 p. 638
Question 2 of 5
When caring for a patient with a new right-sided homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the acute period, the nurse should place objects on the patient's unaffected side. Because there is a visual defect in the right half of each eye, an eye patch is not appropriate. The patient should be approached from the left side. The visual deficit may not resolve, although the patient can learn to compensate for the defect.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is a sign of increased intracranial pressure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) often manifests as irritability, along with headache, vomiting, and altered consciousness. Hypotension (likely a typo for hypertension) is a late sign with bradycardia (Cushing’s triad), not tachycardia. Tinnitus is unrelated to ICP.
Question 4 of 5
A 30-year-old female presents with muscle weakness in the lower extremities and palpitations. Her symptoms have been progressively worse over the course of a 2 weeks. She reports to be in great health, but had a period of abdominal pain and diarrhea approximately 5 weeks ago. Her temperature is 98.9 deg F (37.2 deg C), blood pressure 117/82 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 16/min. On physical exam, there is 4-/5 muscle strength throughout the lower extremities. Bilateral patellar reflexes are 1+ and ankle reflexes are absent. Lumbar puncture was performed, and results are pending. Part 1: What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Progressive weakness post-GI illness, reduced reflexes, and palpitations (possibly autonomic involvement) suggest Guillain-Barre syndrome, an acute demyelinating neuropathy. Polymyositis involves proximal weakness without reflex loss, hypokalemia causes generalized weakness with normal reflexes, and myasthenia gravis is fatiguable.
Question 5 of 5
A 31-year-old female presents with throbbing right-sided headache that she rates as 8/10 in intensity. She states her pain began approximately 12 hours ago, and is accompanied by nausea. She finds some relief when sitting in a quiet, dark room. She reports that prior to the onset of her headache, she noticed a 'bright spot' in her left lateral vision that later expanded to form a crescent with 'zigzagging' lines of color that has made her feel as if she was 'blind.' This lasted 30 minutes and then resolved, and was followed by the headache. She experiences similar episodes approximately once every two months. Physical exam is completely normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Migraine with aura (visual scotoma) and throbbing headache with nausea/photophobia responds acutely to triptans (e.g., sumatriptan). Ondansetron treats nausea, propranolol is prophylactic, and verapamil is for cluster headaches.