ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. Ceftriaxone is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to its effectiveness in treating the infection. It is a third-generation cephalosporin that targets the bacteria causing gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used to treat fungal infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Metronidazole (C) is used to treat certain bacterial and parasitic infections but is not the first-line treatment for gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV infections, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
Question 2 of 9
During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio. This test measures the ratio of two substances in the amniotic fluid and indicates fetal lung maturity. A high L/S ratio suggests mature lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Choice A (Alpha-fetoprotein) is a test for neural tube defects, not lung maturity. Choice C (Kleihauer-Betke test) is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not lung maturity. Choice D (Indirect Coombs' test) is for detecting Rh incompatibility, not lung maturity.
Question 3 of 9
During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This is the fundamental purpose of performing an episiotomy during childbirth. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately specifies "perineal incision," whereas an episiotomy is specifically made in the perineum. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it increases the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries; the choice of episiotomy type depends on various factors and provider preference.
Question 4 of 9
A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to respiratory depression (respirations less than 12/min), decreased urinary output (less than 25 mL/hr), and altered mental status (decreased level of consciousness). These are classic signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity due to its effects on the central nervous system and renal function. Reporting these findings promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications such as respiratory arrest and renal failure. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass the full spectrum of potential signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. Ceftriaxone is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to its effectiveness in treating the infection. It is a third-generation cephalosporin that targets the bacteria causing gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used to treat fungal infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Metronidazole (C) is used to treat certain bacterial and parasitic infections but is not the first-line treatment for gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV infections, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
Question 6 of 9
When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because calcium supplements are important for breastfeeding mothers who do not consume enough dairy products. Calcium is essential for the baby's bone development and maintaining the mother's bone health. Option A is incorrect as excessive caffeine intake can be harmful to the baby. Option B is incorrect because folic acid does not directly affect milk supply. Option C is incorrect because the recommended additional calorie intake for breastfeeding mothers is around 500 calories per day, not 330.
Question 7 of 9
When educating a pregnant client about potential complications, which manifestation should the nurse emphasize reporting to the provider promptly?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vaginal bleeding. This is crucial to report promptly as it could indicate a serious issue like placental abruption or miscarriage, posing a risk to both the mother and fetus. Swelling of the ankles (B) is common in pregnancy but not an emergency. Heartburn after eating (C) is uncomfortable but not a severe complication. Lightheadedness when lying on back (D) may be due to supine hypotensive syndrome, but it is not as urgent as vaginal bleeding.
Question 8 of 9
When caring for clients in a prenatal clinic, a nurse should report which client's weight gain to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Choice B is correct because a 3.6 kg (8 lb) weight gain in the first trimester is excessive and could indicate potential issues like gestational diabetes or preeclampsia. This early excessive weight gain needs immediate provider intervention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they represent normal weight gains expected in each trimester and do not raise immediate concerns.
Question 9 of 9
A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because checking the strings of the IUD after periods is a key part of ensuring the device is in place, preventing pregnancy, and monitoring for potential issues. This action indicates understanding of IUD care. Choice A is incorrect because the IUD usually does not need replacement annually. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect because fertility can return quickly after IUD removal, not necessarily after 5 months.