ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the choices are risk factors for preterm labor. A: Urinary tract infection can lead to inflammation and contractions. B: Multifetal pregnancy puts more stress on the uterus, increasing the risk. C: Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor due to decreased amniotic fluid levels. In summary, all the choices contribute to the increased likelihood of preterm labor.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can indeed help prevent breakage and maintain effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs. Water-based lubricants are safe to use with condoms as they do not weaken the latex. Option B is incorrect as a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, not removed after 2 hours. Option C is also incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in many cases. Option D is incorrect as a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.
Question 4 of 9
A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing is to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations are typically benign and are associated with head compression during contractions, which is a normal response to labor. There is no need to discontinue the oxytocin infusion as early decelerations do not indicate fetal distress. Requesting the provider to assess the client may not be necessary at this point unless other concerning signs are present. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid is not indicated as it would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the best course of action is to continue monitoring the client for any changes in the FHR pattern.
Question 5 of 9
A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts. This is important for monitoring fetal well-being, especially in cases of premature rupture of membranes. By counting fetal kicks daily, the client can assess fetal movements and report any changes promptly to healthcare providers. This helps in early detection of fetal distress or problems. A: Using a condom with sexual intercourse is not relevant to the situation of premature rupture of membranes. B: Avoiding bubble bath solution is important for preventing vaginal infections but not directly related to monitoring fetal well-being. C: Wiping from front to back during perineal hygiene is a general hygiene practice and not specific to the situation of premature rupture of membranes.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in early labor. The client has a platelet count of 75,000/mm3 and is requesting pain relief. Which of the following treatment modalities should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Attention-focusing. At 40 weeks gestation with a platelet count of 75,000/mm3, epidural analgesia is contraindicated due to the risk of epidural hematoma. Naloxone hydrochloride is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for labor pain relief. Pudendal nerve block is used for local anesthesia during the second stage of labor, not for early labor pain relief. Attention-focusing techniques can help the client manage pain without pharmacological interventions, ensuring safety for both the client and the baby.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three signs (Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and Ballottement) are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to bluish discoloration of the cervix, Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix, and Ballottement is a palpable rebound of the fetus against the examiner's fingers. These signs are indicative of pregnancy and are commonly observed in pregnant individuals. Therefore, the provider should expect to see all these findings in a pregnant client. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of these signs individually is a probable sign of pregnancy, and the question asks for all the expected findings, not just one or two of them.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for performing Leopold maneuvers is to first palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part (A), then determine the location of the fetal back (B), and finally palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet (C). Choosing option D (All of the Above) is correct because it encompasses all the necessary steps in the correct order to perform Leopold maneuvers effectively. Palpating the fundus helps identify the presenting part, determining the location of the fetal back provides information on the fetal lie, and palpating for the presenting part at the inlet helps confirm the position of the fetus. The other choices are incorrect because they do not provide the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers accurately.
Question 9 of 9
While assisting with the care of a client in active labor, a nurse observes clear fluid and a loop of pulsating umbilical cord outside the client's vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Call for assistance. This is the first action the nurse should take in this emergency situation. Calling for help ensures that additional support and resources are available to manage the situation effectively. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (A) is not recommended as it can worsen the prolapsed cord. Applying finger pressure to the presenting part (B) can lead to further complications. Administering oxygen (C) may be necessary but is not the priority when a prolapsed cord is present.