ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching clients in a prenatal class about the importance of taking folic acid during pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the clients to consume an adequate amount of folic acid from various sources to prevent which of the following fetal abnormalities?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neural tube defect. Folic acid is essential for proper neural tube development in the fetus, preventing abnormalities like spina bifida. Consuming an adequate amount of folic acid before and during pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. Trisomy 21 (choice B) is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not influenced by folic acid intake. Cleft lip (choice C) and atrial septal defect (choice D) have multifactorial causes and are not directly prevented by folic acid consumption.
Question 3 of 9
A parent is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse regarding caring for their newborn after a circumcision. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding. This instruction is crucial because it addresses the immediate post-circumcision care to control bleeding. Applying slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad helps to promote clotting and prevent excessive bleeding. This step is essential to ensure the newborn's safety and prevent complications. Summary of other choices: B: Inspecting the circumcision site every 6 to 8 hours is important, but not as critical as addressing bleeding promptly. C: Avoiding baby wipes containing alcohol is a good practice to prevent irritation, but it is not the most urgent instruction for immediate care. D: Cleaning the circumcision site daily using a warm, wet washcloth is generally recommended for routine care, but in the immediate post-circumcision period, controlling bleeding takes precedence.
Question 4 of 9
A client who is postpartum is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the client be instructed to monitor and report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Unilateral breast pain in a postpartum client can indicate mastitis, a bacterial infection of the breast tissue. This requires prompt medical attention to prevent complications like abscess formation. Other Choices: A: Abdominal striae are normal after pregnancy and don't require immediate intervention. B: Mild temperature elevation is common postpartum and doesn't necessarily indicate infection. D: Brownish-red discharge on day 5 is typically normal lochia and not concerning unless foul-smelling or accompanied by fever.
Question 5 of 9
A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing is to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations are typically benign and are associated with head compression during contractions, which is a normal response to labor. There is no need to discontinue the oxytocin infusion as early decelerations do not indicate fetal distress. Requesting the provider to assess the client may not be necessary at this point unless other concerning signs are present. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid is not indicated as it would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the best course of action is to continue monitoring the client for any changes in the FHR pattern.
Question 6 of 9
During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the acoustic vibration device is used during a nonstress test to wake up a sleeping fetus, ensuring that the baby is active and responsive during the test. This helps to assess the baby's well-being and monitor its heart rate patterns. Choice A is incorrect as the device does not stimulate uterine contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the incidence of contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the device does not lull the fetus to sleep, but rather ensures the fetus is awake and moving during the test.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can indeed help prevent breakage and maintain effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs. Water-based lubricants are safe to use with condoms as they do not weaken the latex. Option B is incorrect as a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, not removed after 2 hours. Option C is also incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in many cases. Option D is incorrect as a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tender lymph nodes. In TORCH infections, which include Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus, tender lymph nodes are a common finding due to the body's immune response to the infection. Joint pain (choice A) is not typically associated with TORCH infections. Malaise (choice B) is a general feeling of discomfort and is not specific to TORCH infections. Rash (choice C) is also not a common finding in TORCH infections, making it an incorrect choice.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR). After an amniocentesis, the priority is monitoring FHR to assess fetal well-being and detect any signs of distress. This is crucial as the procedure carries a risk of causing fetal distress. Checking the client's temperature (A) is important but not the priority. Observing for uterine contractions (B) is important but not immediate post-amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (C) is typically done in cases of Rh incompatibility and not directly related to the amniocentesis procedure.