ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
Question 2 of 9
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above. 1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST. 2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation. 3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the choices are risk factors for preterm labor. A: Urinary tract infection can lead to inflammation and contractions. B: Multifetal pregnancy puts more stress on the uterus, increasing the risk. C: Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor due to decreased amniotic fluid levels. In summary, all the choices contribute to the increased likelihood of preterm labor.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day. This exercise helps strengthen the core muscles, which can alleviate backache during pregnancy. It also promotes flexibility in the lower back and pelvis. Avoiding any lifting (A) is not a practical measure as some lifting may be necessary in daily activities. Performing Kegel exercises (B) strengthens pelvic floor muscles but does not directly address backache. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods (D) can help reduce backache but is not as effective as specific exercises targeting the back muscles like the pelvic rock exercise.
Question 5 of 9
When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to dehydration and ketonuria. Presence of urine ketones indicates fat breakdown due to inadequate calorie intake. Option A is within normal range for hemoglobin. Option C is within normal range for alanine aminotransferase. Option D is within normal range for blood glucose. Thus, the presence of urine ketones is the most indicative finding for hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 6 of 9
A client who is at 8 weeks of gestation tells the nurse, 'I am not sure I am happy about being pregnant.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer B: It is normal to have these feelings during the first few months of pregnancy. 1. Acknowledges client's emotions without judgment. 2. Validates the client's experience as common and normal. 3. Provides reassurance and support. 4. Encourages open communication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Not necessary to escalate without client's consent. C. Invalidates client's feelings and imposes expectations. D. Implies assumption of severity and may be seen as intrusive.
Question 7 of 9
A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Betamethasone. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to promote fetal lung maturity in preterm labor. In this scenario, at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa and active bleeding, the priority is to promote fetal lung maturity in case of premature delivery due to the risk of maternal hemorrhage. Indomethacin (B) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and not indicated in this situation. Nifedipine (C) is a calcium channel blocker used for preterm labor to delay contractions, not for placenta previa and active bleeding. Methylergonovine (D) is used for postpartum hemorrhage and not indicated in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare provider in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result of folic acid deficiency?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neural tube defects. Folic acid is crucial for neural tube development in the fetus. Without sufficient folic acid, neural tube defects like spina bifida can occur. Iron deficiency anemia (A) is not directly related to folic acid deficiency. Poor bone formation (B) is more associated with calcium and vitamin D deficiencies. Macrosomic fetus (C) refers to excessive fetal growth, not a direct consequence of folic acid deficiency. In summary, folic acid deficiency primarily increases the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus or neonate.
Question 9 of 9
A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts. This is important for monitoring fetal well-being, especially in cases of premature rupture of membranes. By counting fetal kicks daily, the client can assess fetal movements and report any changes promptly to healthcare providers. This helps in early detection of fetal distress or problems. A: Using a condom with sexual intercourse is not relevant to the situation of premature rupture of membranes. B: Avoiding bubble bath solution is important for preventing vaginal infections but not directly related to monitoring fetal well-being. C: Wiping from front to back during perineal hygiene is a general hygiene practice and not specific to the situation of premature rupture of membranes.