Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A client at 42 weeks of gestation is at risk for oligohydramnios, which is associated with decreased amniotic fluid levels. Amnioinfusion can be used to increase amniotic fluid volume to prevent fetal cord compression and facilitate fetal movement during labor. Summary: - B: Hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not require amnioinfusion. - C: Fetal cord compression is a reason for amnioinfusion, not a condition to prepare for. - D: Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not typically require amnioinfusion unless there are complicating factors.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because verifying the newborn's identification ensures the right baby is in the nursery. It is crucial for patient safety and prevents mix-ups. Confirming identification (choice A) is important but comes after verification. Administering vitamin K (choice C) is a necessary procedure but not the first priority. Determining obstetrical risk factors (choice D) is important but not as immediate as verifying identification. Thus, verifying the newborn's identification should be done first to prevent errors and ensure proper care.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Petechiae over the head. This is because tight nuchal cord can cause pressure on the baby's head during delivery, leading to tiny red or purple spots called petechiae due to capillary rupture. Bruising over the buttocks (A) is more common in breech deliveries, hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (B) could indicate Epstein pearls which are benign and common in newborns, and bilateral periauricular papillomas (D) are not related to nuchal cord compression.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neural tube defect. Folic acid is essential for proper neural tube development in the fetus, preventing abnormalities like spina bifida. Consuming an adequate amount of folic acid before and during pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. Trisomy 21 (choice B) is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not influenced by folic acid intake. Cleft lip (choice C) and atrial septal defect (choice D) have multifactorial causes and are not directly prevented by folic acid consumption.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: You should empty your bladder before the procedure. This is important because a full bladder can obstruct the visualization of the fetus during amniocentesis. By emptying the bladder, the uterus is better positioned for the procedure, making it safer and more effective. Explanation: 1. A (You will lie on your right side during the procedure) is incorrect because the position during amniocentesis is typically on the back or slightly tilted to the left. 2. B (You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure) is incorrect as fasting is not required for amniocentesis. 3. D (The test is performed to determine gestational age) is incorrect as amniocentesis is used to detect genetic abnormalities, not gestational age.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions become stronger with walking. This is because true labor is characterized by contractions that consistently increase in intensity and frequency, which is often enhanced by physical activity like walking. Contractions in false labor do not typically intensify with movement. Discomfort in true labor is usually not easily relieved by a back massage (B) and contractions in true labor remain regular even with changes in activity (C). Discomfort in true labor is typically felt in the lower abdomen and back, not above the umbilicus (D).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume three to four servings of dairy each day. During the third trimester of pregnancy, calcium needs increase to support the baby's bone development. Dairy products are a rich source of calcium. Adolescents are still growing themselves, so adequate calcium intake is crucial for both the mother and baby. B: Increasing caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories is not specific to the third trimester and may lead to excessive weight gain, which can be harmful. C: Limiting sodium intake to less than 1 gram is not necessary during pregnancy, and some sodium is required for maintaining fluid balance. D: Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day is important, but it is not specific to the third trimester and may vary based on individual needs.