Which of the following is both the standard treatment and also a potential cure for aplastic anemia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stem cell transplantation. Stem cell transplantation is considered the standard treatment for aplastic anemia as it aims to replace the dysfunctional bone marrow with healthy stem cells to restore blood cell production. This procedure has the potential to cure aplastic anemia by providing a source of healthy cells that can differentiate into all blood cell types. Antithymocyte globulin (A) and cyclosporine (B) are commonly used immunosuppressive therapies to help manage the condition but do not offer a curative effect. Transfusions (D) are used to alleviate symptoms of aplastic anemia by providing necessary blood components but do not address the underlying cause of the disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cryofibrinogen. Cryofibrinogenemia can cause a spurious decrease in Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) due to the presence of cryoprecipitates in the blood sample, leading to underestimation of red blood cell volume. Cryofibrinogen does not actually alter the size of the red blood cells, but its presence interferes with the accurate measurement of MCV. Summary: B: Hyperglycemia does not affect MCV. C: Autoagglutination causes clumping of red blood cells, leading to falsely elevated MCV. D: High white blood cell count does not directly impact MCV.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Folic acid therapy does not cause sickle cell anemia. Folic acid is a B vitamin that helps in the production of red blood cells and is commonly used to treat anemia. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder where red blood cells become sickle-shaped, leading to various health complications. Folic acid therapy is not known to cause this genetic condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because folic acid therapy does not lead to sickle cell anemia in any circumstances or age group.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Certainly. The correct answer is B (FALSE) because antimalarial drugs and high dose birth control do not increase riboflavin levels. Riboflavin is a water-soluble vitamin that is not affected by these medications. Choice A (TRUE) is incorrect as there is no evidence to support an increase in riboflavin due to these drugs. Choice C (Sometimes) is incorrect because there is no situation where these medications would lead to an increase in riboflavin. Choice D (Only in pregnancy) is also incorrect as riboflavin levels are not specifically affected by pregnancy or these medications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice D (Liver impairment) being correct: 1. Warfarin is metabolized in the liver. 2. Liver impairment can alter the metabolism of warfarin, leading to potential over-anticoagulation. 3. Monitoring of INR levels is crucial in patients with liver impairment to prevent bleeding risks. 4. Caution is necessary to adjust warfarin dosages based on liver function tests. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Alcoholic liver disease - Although liver function is compromised, specific liver impairment poses a higher risk with warfarin. B: Gastrointestinal bleeding - While a concern with anticoagulants, liver impairment directly affects warfarin metabolism. C: Recent neurosurgery - Not directly related to liver function, so does not impact warfarin metabolism.