Which of the following factors does NOT register a score of 1 in the Well's Score for diagnosis of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Well's Score is used to assess the probability of DVT. 2. A score of 1 is assigned for each factor present. 3. In this case, if a diagnosis is as likely or more likely than DVT, it would not add to the DVT probability. 4. Therefore, this factor does NOT register a score of 1 in the Well's Score. Summary: A: History of being bedridden for >= 3 days because of surgery within 4 weeks - registers a score of 1 as it is a risk factor for DVT. B: Localised tenderness along distribution of deep veins - registers a score of 1 as it is a sign of DVT. D: Unilateral pitting oedema - registers a score of 1 as it is a symptom of DVT.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diabetic retinopathy. This is a microvascular complication of diabetes mellitus affecting the small blood vessels in the retina. It is caused by prolonged high blood sugar levels damaging the blood vessels, leading to vision problems and potentially blindness. Explanation: 1. Diabetic retinopathy specifically involves the microvasculature of the eye. 2. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (Choice A) and Coronary heart disease (Choice B) are macrovascular complications affecting larger blood vessels. 3. Peripheral artery disease (Choice D) involves blockages in larger arteries, not the microvasculature. In summary, diabetic retinopathy is the best description of a microvascular complication of diabetes mellitus as it involves damage to the small blood vessels in the retina, distinguishing it from macrovascular complications listed in the other options.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peak flow <33% of normal. This indicates severe airflow obstruction. A: Hypotension is a sign of severe asthma but not specific enough to categorize it as severe. B: Peak flow <50% indicates moderate exacerbation. D: Bradycardia is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation. Therefore, C is the most appropriate choice because it directly reflects the severity of the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eradication of H. pylori prevents adenocarcinoma of the stomach. This statement is incorrect because eradication of H. pylori has been shown to decrease the risk of gastric cancer but does not completely prevent it. A: H. pylori can invade the gastric epithelium, leading to inflammation. B: H. pylori actually reduces gastric acid secretion to help it survive in the stomach. D: H. pylori does produce urease, which helps it survive in the acidic stomach environment by neutralizing urea into ammonia and CO2.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium channel-blocker. The crater above the gastroesophageal junction is likely due to a peptic ulcer, which can be caused by NSAIDs and alendronate due to their potential to irritate the gastric mucosa. Iron sulfate can also contribute to gastrointestinal irritation but is less common compared to NSAIDs and alendronate in causing ulcers. Calcium channel-blockers, on the other hand, do not have a direct irritant effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa and are not associated with peptic ulcers. Therefore, calcium channel-blockers are the least likely contributor to the formation of the crater in this scenario.