ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which model is most useful in examining the cause of disease in an individual, based upon external factors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Agent-Host-Environment Model excels in analyzing disease causation by external factors, viewing illness as an interaction between an agent (e.g., bacteria), host (individual), and environment (living conditions). For example, tuberculosis arises from a germ (agent), a susceptible person (host), and crowded settings (environment), pinpointing risk factors like sanitation. The Health-Illness Continuum tracks health status, not causes. The High-Level Wellness Model focuses on optimal functioning, not etiology. The Health Belief Model explains behavior, not disease origins. This model's triad framework aids nurses in identifying external triggers like pollution or vectors tailoring prevention, making it uniquely effective for dissecting environmental contributions to illness, a critical tool in public health nursing.
Question 2 of 5
Which findings are typical of end-stage renal disease? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: End-stage renal disease (ESRD) is characterized by the kidneys' inability to filter waste and maintain homeostasis, leading to specific clinical findings. Iron-deficient anemia (A) occurs due to reduced erythropoietin production by failing kidneys, impairing red blood cell synthesis. Decreased creatinine clearance (C) is a hallmark of ESRD, reflecting the kidneys' diminished filtration capacity, causing creatinine to accumulate in the blood. Metabolic acidosis (D) results from the kidneys' failure to excrete hydrogen ions and reabsorb bicarbonate, lowering blood pH. Increased albumin levels (B) are incorrect because ESRD often leads to hypoalbuminemia due to proteinuria and malnutrition, not increased levels. Increased serum calcium (E) and respiratory alkalosis (F) are not typical; instead, hypocalcemia and compensatory respiratory changes might occur but aren't primary findings. The question asks for typical findings, and while A, C, and D apply, the CSV format requires a single correct answer, so C is selected as a key indicator due to its direct tie to renal filtration failure, a core feature of ESRD.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is preparing to suction an adult client through the client's tracheostomy tube. Which interventions should the nurse perform for this procedure? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suctioning a tracheostomy requires precise interventions to ensure safety and efficacy. Applying suction for 10 to 15 seconds (A) is correct, as prolonged suctioning risks hypoxia and mucosal damage, aligning with standard respiratory care guidelines. Hyperoxygenating the client before suctioning (B) prevents desaturation, a critical step in ventilated patients. Setting suction pressure at $160 \mathrm{~mm} \mathrm{Hg}$ (C) is too high; typical adult settings are 80-120 mm Hg to avoid trauma. Applying intermittent suction while rotating the catheter (D) clears secretions effectively without continuous pressure. Other options like advancing the catheter until resistance then pulling back 1 cm (E) are also valid but not listed as the single answer. The CSV requires one choice, so A is selected for its universal applicability. Rationale: Limiting suction time to 10-15 seconds minimizes oxygen depletion and tissue injury, a foundational principle in tracheostomy care, ensuring patient stability during a procedure that temporarily obstructs airflow, per ATS and AACN standards.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse has finished suctioning a client. The nurse should use which parameters to best determine the effectiveness of suctioning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clear breath sounds (B) best determine suctioning effectiveness, indicating secretion clearance. Pink skin (A), comfort (C), or high Sao2 (D) are supportive but less direct. B is correct. Rationale: Audible lung clarity confirms airway patency, the primary suctioning goal, per respiratory assessment standards.
Question 5 of 5
Initially after a brain attack (stroke, cerebrovascular accident), a client's pupils are equal and reactive to light. Four hours later the nurse identifies that one pupil reacts more slowly than the other. The client's systolic blood pressure is beginning to increase. On which condition should the nurse be prepared to focus care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Slow pupil reaction and rising systolic BP post-stroke indicate increased ICP (D), a common complication. Spinal (A) or hypovolemic shock (C) don't apply. Herniation (B) is a result. D is correct. Rationale: ICP from edema or bleeding requires urgent focus, per stroke management protocols, to prevent further brain damage.