Which medication is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase enzyme, reducing uric acid levels. 2. Probenecid increases uric acid excretion, not inhibiting xanthine oxidase. 3. Colchicine is an anti-inflammatory agent for gout, not a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. 4. Leflunomide is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug, not a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. In summary, Allopurinol (choice A) is the correct answer as it directly inhibits xanthine oxidase, while the other choices have different mechanisms of action not related to xanthine oxidase inhibition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron deficiency anemia. Hookworm infection can lead to iron deficiency anemia by causing blood loss in the gastrointestinal tract. Hookworms feed on blood in the intestines, leading to chronic blood loss and subsequent iron deficiency. This type of anemia is characterized by low iron levels in the body, resulting in decreased production of hemoglobin and red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia (choice A) is caused by premature destruction of red blood cells, not blood loss. Megaloblastic anemia (choice C) is typically due to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, not related to hookworm infestation. Aplastic anemia (choice D) is a condition where the bone marrow does not produce enough blood cells, not directly caused by hookworm infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because myelodysplastic syndromes result from ineffective proliferation of cells of myeloid origin. This leads to abnormal development and functioning of blood cells. Choice A is incorrect as the disorders actually involve ineffective rather than increased proliferation. Choice B is incorrect as polycythemia vera is a separate disorder characterized by an overproduction of red blood cells. Choice D is incorrect as myelodysplastic syndromes specifically involve myeloid cells, not lymphoid cells.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quickly assess the client's respiratory status. An anaphylactic reaction can lead to severe respiratory distress, such as bronchospasm or swelling of the airways, which can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory status allows for prompt identification of any breathing difficulties and immediate intervention if needed. Leaving the client to contact a PHCP (A) may waste critical time. Administering oxygen (B) may be necessary but assessing the respiratory status should come first. Keeping the client supine regardless of blood pressure readings (D) is not appropriate as positioning should be based on the client's condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because recording the site, date, and time of the test is crucial for documentation and tracking purposes. This information helps monitor for any delayed reactions and ensures proper follow-up. Choice B is incorrect as clients should be educated to report any reaction immediately, not just return for inspection. Choice C is incorrect because monitoring the client for an allergic reaction should occur for at least 15-30 minutes, not 1 to 2 hours. Choice D is incorrect as estimating the size of the wheal is not necessary for postprocedure interventions.