Which interventions apply in the care of a client at high risk for an allergic response to a latex allergy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use nonlatex gloves. This intervention is crucial in preventing an allergic response in a client with a latex allergy. Latex gloves are a common source of exposure to latex allergens, so using nonlatex gloves reduces the risk of triggering an allergic reaction. Explanation: 1. Latex gloves contain latex proteins that can cause allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. 2. By using nonlatex gloves, the risk of direct contact with latex allergens is minimized. 3. This intervention is a practical and effective measure to protect the client from exposure to latex. 4. It is a proactive approach to prevent potential allergic responses and promote client safety. Summary of other choices: B: Placing the client in a private room only does not directly address the risk of latex exposure. C: Using a blood pressure cuff from an electronic device only is not specific to preventing latex exposure. D: Avoiding medication vials with rubber stoppers is important but does not directly address the use of latex

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor multimers. This patient's presentation is consistent with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), caused by a deficiency of ADAMTS13 leading to the accumulation of ultra-large von Willebrand factor multimers. This results in platelet aggregation, microthrombi formation, hemolytic anemia, and renal failure. A is incorrect because DIC typically presents with bleeding manifestations. B is incorrect as antiplatelet antibodies would not lead to the specific findings in this case. D is incorrect as verotoxin-induced endothelial damage is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome, which typically presents with bloody diarrhea.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cystoscopy and retrograde pyelography. This is the most useful test for evaluating painless hematuria in a 65-year-old smoker. Cystoscopy allows direct visualization of the bladder and can identify potential sources of bleeding. Retrograde pyelography helps assess the upper urinary tract for any abnormalities. The other choices are not as relevant in this context: A (urine culture) is used for diagnosing urinary tract infections, B (PSA) is for prostate cancer screening, and C (bladder scan) is used for assessing bladder volume, not for evaluating hematuria.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Myeloproliferative syndrome. Given the patient's symptoms (fatigue, itching, splenomegaly) and lab results (elevated Hb and platelets), it suggests an overproduction of blood cells, characteristic of myeloproliferative syndromes. Myelodysplastic syndrome (choice A) presents with cytopenias, not elevated blood counts. Paraneoplastic syndrome (choice C) is associated with malignancies, not blood disorders. Cushing syndrome (choice D) is characterized by hypercortisolism, not blood abnormalities.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Donor antibodies vs. recipient. Since the woman developed pulmonary edema post-transfusion, it suggests an immune reaction due to donor antibodies targeting recipient antigens, leading to inflammation and increased vascular permeability. This immune response results in fluid leakage into the lungs, causing pulmonary edema. Volume overload (A) is unlikely as the patient had pulmonary edema, not generalized edema. Recipient antibodies vs. donor (C) is incorrect as the recipient's antibodies would not cause immediate pulmonary edema post-transfusion. Bacterial contamination (D) can lead to septic reactions but is less likely to cause pulmonary edema in this context.