Which expected outcome is correctly written?

Questions 80

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LPN Fundamentals Practice Test Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which expected outcome is correctly written?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A well-written expected outcome follows the SMART criteria: specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound. 'The patient will identify all the high-salt food from a prepared list by discharge' meets these standards: it specifies the action (identifying high-salt foods), provides a measurable method (from a prepared list), and sets a clear timeline (by discharge), ensuring it's achievable and realistic for patient education. In contrast, 'The patient will feel less nauseated in 24 hours' is vague and subjective, lacking a measurable indicator. 'The patient will eat the right amount of food daily' fails to define 'right amount,' making it unmeasurable and unspecific. 'The patient will have enough sleep' is similarly imprecise, with no clear metric or timeframe. The correctly written outcome supports effective care planning by providing a concrete, evaluable goal, critical for tracking patient progress.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sequential compression devices (A) prevent DVT in immobile SCI patients. Active exercise (B) isn't feasible. Anticoagulants (C) need orders. Massage (D) risks emboli. A is correct. Rationale: Compression enhances venous return, reducing stasis, per DVT prophylaxis in SCI, a standard intervention.

Question 3 of 9

Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Luvox (D), fluvoxamine, is an SSRI for OCD and depression, not an anxiolytic. Valium (A, diazepam), Ativan (B, lorazepam), and Milltown (C, meprobamate) are benzodiazepines or anxiolytics for anxiety relief. Luvox targets serotonin, not GABA like anxiolytics, per pharmacology, making D the correct non-anxiolytic.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse used an electronic chart to record Mr. Gary's data. This is an example of?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Using an electronic chart is nursing informatics (A) tech in care, per definition. EBP (B) is research, public health (C) population, tertiary (D) advanced not tech-specific. A fits informatics' application, making it correct.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse who works in a pediatric practice assesses the developmental level of children of various ages to determine their psychosocial development. These assessments are based on the work of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development underpins pediatric assessments of children's growth, focusing on eight stages tied to age-specific conflicts like trust versus mistrust in infancy. In a pediatric practice, a nurse uses this to gauge if a child's social and emotional milestones align with norms, assessing interactions or independence. Erikson integrates social, biological, and environmental factors, offering a lifespan lens ideal for children. Jean Watson's caring theory emphasizes interpersonal healing, not development. Martha Rogers' model centers on energy fields and client-environment interplay, less stage-focused. Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs prioritizes physical and psychological needs hierarchically, not age-based progression. Erikson's framework provides nurses a structured, age-sensitive tool to evaluate and support psychosocial health, critical for tailoring care to young clients' evolving capabilities.

Question 6 of 9

Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Patricia Benner's model, rooted in her 1980s work ‘From Novice to Expert,' frames caring as a relational act where people and events matter, fostering connection. She sees it as inherent to nursing, revealing stress and coping strategies while driving responsibility to aid recovery. Unlike Watson's spiritual lens, Leininger's cultural emphasis, or Swanson's processes, Benner ties caring to skill development e.g., an expert nurse intuitively comforts a distressed patient, re-establishing trust. Her ‘Care Bear' mnemonic links caring to connection, influencing how nurses progress from rule-based to intuitive practice, a concept widely applied in clinical education and mentorship.

Question 7 of 9

Which intervention is important for maintaining the safety of an immobile patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Implementing fall prevention measures is critical for an immobile patient's safety, involving tools like bed alarms, low beds, or assistance during transfers to mitigate risks in a controlled environment. Immobile patients can't walk independently, so promoting frequent movement isn't feasible and could increase danger. Physical or soft restraints, while sometimes considered, are last-resort options due to ethical and safety concerns, not primary safety strategies. Fall prevention directly addresses the vulnerability of those unable to reposition themselves, reducing injury risk a key nursing responsibility. This approach ensures a safe setting, balancing protection with patient dignity, and aligns with evidence-based practice to minimize harm in immobile populations.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula. What is an important complication associated with prolonged use of a nasal cannula?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Dry nasal passages (A) are a common complication of prolonged nasal cannula use, as unhumidified oxygen dries mucosa, causing discomfort or bleeding. Hypoventilation (B) isn't typical with low-flow devices. Hyperoxygenation (C) requires higher flows. Infection risk (D) isn't direct. Humidification prevents this, per nursing care, ensuring patient tolerance.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is planning to suction a client through a tracheostomy tube. Which is the amount of time for application of suction during withdrawal of the catheter?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Suctioning through a tracheostomy should last 10 seconds (A) during withdrawal to minimize hypoxia and trauma, per standard guidelines. Longer times 25 (B), 30 (C), or 35 (D) seconds increase risks of oxygen depletion and mucosal injury. A is correct. Rationale: Limiting suction to 10 seconds balances secretion removal with oxygenation preservation, a key safety measure in airway management, preventing complications like atelectasis or arrhythmias, as endorsed by AACN and ATS.

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