ATI LPN
Medical Surgical Nursing Neurological Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
When teaching about clopidogrel (Plavix), the nurse will tell the patient with cerebral atherosclerosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel inhibits platelet function and increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, so patients should be advised to notify the health care provider about any signs of bleeding. The medication does not lower blood pressure, decrease plaque formation, or dissolve clots.
Question 2 of 5
What action should you take for a patient experiencing a generalized seizure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Loosening restrictive clothing during a generalized seizure ensures airway patency and comfort. Supine positioning risks aspiration, restraints and tongue blades are unsafe, and a hypothermia blanket is irrelevant.
Question 3 of 5
A 72-year-old male presents with abnormal speech and right-sided weakness. He was last seen normal approximately 1 hour ago. Past medical history is significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Five years ago, he underwent coronary artery bypass grafting for the management of a myocardial infarction. On exam, his speech is non-fluent and sparse, with impaired repetition. He has difficulty naming even common objects. Comprehension is relatively intact. There is a right-sided mouth droop, with sparing of the forehead. Strength is 3/5 throughout the right upper extremity, and 4+/5 in the right lower extremity. Sensation appears intact. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute stroke symptoms (Broca’s aphasia, right-sided weakness) within 1 hour require a head CT first to rule out hemorrhage before considering thrombolysis (alteplase) or thrombectomy, both viable within the time window. Aspirin is for secondary prevention.
Question 4 of 5
A 14-year-old male presents with a witnessed generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Prior to the seizure event, he felt anxious, confused, and diaphoretic. Medical history is significant for recently diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus, and he has been struggling to control his blood glucose levels. His only medication is an insulin regimen administered via needle and syringe injections. He denies any alcohol or drug use. Laboratory tests were obtained. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A single seizure with hypoglycemia risk (diabetes, poor glucose control) and prodrome (anxiety, diaphoresis) suggests a provoked event. Education on glucose management prevents recurrence; AEDs are for epilepsy, not single provoked seizures.
Question 5 of 5
A 29-year-old African American woman presents with bilateral facial weakness. This symptom developed over the course of a few hours and has never happened before. Upon further questioning, the patient reports seeing her pulmonologist every 6 months to follow her lung function and seeing her ophthalmologist annually for an eye exam. Neurological exam is significant for the patient being unable to smile, or raise her eyebrows. There is also an erythematous and tender nodule affecting the pretibial surfaces of both legs. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain shows leptomeningeal enhancement. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bilateral facial weakness, erythema nodosum (pretibial nodules), and leptomeningeal enhancement with systemic involvement (lung monitoring) suggest neurosarcoidosis, a granulomatous disease.