When teaching a client about the adverse effects of simvastatin, which of the following findings should be included as an adverse effect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain should be included as an adverse effect when teaching a client about simvastatin. It can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a severe side effect associated with statins like simvastatin that involves muscle breakdown. Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial to prevent serious complications and ensure timely intervention. Tinnitus, diarrhea, and facial flushing are not typically associated with simvastatin use and are less common adverse effects compared to muscle pain.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, an important consideration is preventing hypokalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods is crucial to maintain adequate potassium levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of furosemide, monitoring weight daily may not be directly related to the medication, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain medications that interact with grapefruit juice, not furosemide.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering enoxaparin into the abdomen is recommended to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided as it can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising. Mild bruising at the injection site is common with enoxaparin and should be expected. Alternating injection sites, especially between arms, is not suitable for enoxaparin administration. Consistent administration into the abdomen is preferred for consistent absorption of the medication.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking atenolol. Atenolol can lead to bradycardia, a slow heart rate. By monitoring heart rate daily, the client can promptly identify any significant changes and seek medical attention if necessary. This proactive approach enables early detection of potential adverse effects of atenolol, contributing to the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking atenolol at bedtime, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of atenolol.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is an important teaching point for clients starting metformin to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of this medication. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, bloating, and diarrhea, which can be reduced by staying well-hydrated. Therefore, advising the client to increase their fluid intake will help minimize these side effects and improve medication tolerance. The other options are incorrect: Option A is a general instruction for taking medications but not specifically related to metformin. Option B is incorrect because metformin typically does not cause hypoglycemia but rather hyperglycemia. Option D is also incorrect as a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of metformin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate daily is essential to detect any abnormal changes promptly, allowing for timely medical intervention if necessary. Choice A is incorrect because atenolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as atenolol does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Choice D is incorrect as atenolol is usually taken in the morning to help manage blood pressure throughout the day.