When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because surgical correction of hypospadias is typically recommended before the child is potty-trained. This is important for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes, as the procedure is more straightforward in infants due to their smaller anatomy. Delaying the surgery can lead to increased risk of complications and potential psychological impact on the child as they grow older. A: Repair within one month to prevent bladder infections is not the primary reason for early correction of hypospadias. C: Delaying the repair to school age for reducing castration fears is not a valid reason for postponing the surgery. D: Waiting until after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra repair is not recommended as early correction typically yields better results.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperglycemia. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause an increase in blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing insulin sensitivity. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial as it can lead to serious complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Bradycardia (B) and hypotension (C) are not typical side effects of prednisone, as it tends to cause fluid retention and hypertension. Hyperkalemia (D) is also unlikely as prednisone can actually cause hypokalemia due to increased renal potassium excretion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride causes muscle paralysis, leading to the extremities being paralyzed. This indicates that the medication is effectively blocking neuromuscular transmission. B: Twitching with peripheral nerve stimulation indicates incomplete blockade. C: Clenching fist upon command indicates preserved muscle strength. D: Glasgow Coma Scale measures level of consciousness, not neuromuscular blockade.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Digoxin is a medication that can cause bradycardia as a side effect. 2. Instructing the client to take their pulse before each dose is crucial to monitor for bradycardia. 3. Holding the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute helps prevent potential adverse effects. 4. This instruction ensures the client's safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin. - Choice C is incorrect as taking digoxin with a high-fiber meal may affect absorption negatively. - Choice D is incorrect because skipping a dose based on dizziness or lightheadedness may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Liver toxicity) Rationale: 1. Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity. 2. The nurse should monitor liver function tests regularly. 3. Signs of liver toxicity include jaundice, abdominal pain, and nausea. 4. Prompt detection is crucial to prevent serious complications. Summary: A: Hypertension - Not a common side effect of valproic acid. C: Hyperglycemia - More commonly associated with other medications like antipsychotics. D: Bradycardia - Not a typical side effect of valproic acid.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are upset that this incident has brought you here." This response acknowledges the client's feelings of anger and validates her emotions, showing empathy and understanding. It demonstrates active listening and therapeutic communication, which is crucial in building trust and rapport with the client. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings of anger and invalidates her emotions by shifting the focus to being grateful instead. Choice B is incorrect as it minimizes the client's emotional response by focusing on the material aspect of the situation rather than addressing her feelings. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's emotional state and is a closed-ended question that does not encourage further discussion or exploration of the client's feelings.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it violates patient confidentiality. Reading a client's history and physical in a public area breaches the client's privacy rights. The other choices do not directly compromise patient confidentiality. A involves discussing a cure for AIDS, which is not a breach of confidentiality. C involves sharing personal experiences with the client, and D involves discussing a client's history of drug abuse in a visitor's lounge, which may not be overheard by the client or staff directly involved in the client's care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce intraocular pressure. Timolol is a beta-blocker that works by decreasing the production of aqueous humor in the eye, thereby reducing intraocular pressure. This action helps to prevent damage to the optic nerve in patients with glaucoma. Choices B and C are incorrect because timolol does not affect pupil size. Choice D is incorrect because timolol does not enhance tear production; in fact, it may have a drying effect on the eyes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the muscles involved in coughing, leading to diminished cough effort. This can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications. Pain during coughing (choice A) may occur but is not the primary cause of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. Thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not as directly related to the underlying muscle weakness seen in myasthenia gravis.