Questions 9

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions

Question 1 of 5

When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Urinary frequency is common during the first trimester and again at the end of pregnancy when the baby drops into the pelvis, putting pressure on the bladder.

Question 3 of 5

A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse in a prenatal clinic overhears a newly licensed nurse discussing conception with a client. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because implantation typically occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception, not 2 to 3 days. It is crucial for the nurse to intervene and provide accurate information to ensure the client receives correct education about conception. Choice A is correct as fertilization does occur in the outer third of the fallopian tube. Choice C is also accurate as sperm can remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days. Choice D is correct as bleeding or spotting can indeed accompany implantation.

Question 5 of 5

A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. A firm fundus indicates effective uterine contraction and less bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is a firm fundus to palpation. The increase in blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Increase in lochia (Choice C) may indicate excessive bleeding rather than the medication's effectiveness. Absence of breast pain (Choice D) is not directly related to the medication's effectiveness in treating postpartum hemorrhage.

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