When examining a peripheral blood film, you observe red cells showing a large variation in size. The following term is used to describe this finding:

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Question 1 of 5

When examining a peripheral blood film, you observe red cells showing a large variation in size. The following term is used to describe this finding:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A (Anisocytosis) is correct: 1. Anisocytosis refers to a condition where red blood cells vary significantly in size. 2. In this scenario, observing a large variation in red cell size on a blood film fits the definition of anisocytosis. 3. Anisocytosis is commonly associated with conditions like iron deficiency anemia or certain genetic disorders. 4. Therefore, in the context of the question, anisocytosis is the most appropriate term to describe the finding. Summary: - Choice A (Anisocytosis) is correct as it accurately describes the observed variation in red cell size. - Choices B, C, and D (Poikilocytosis, Haemachromatosis, Polychromasia) are incorrect as they do not specifically address the variation in cell size as seen in anisocytosis.

Question 2 of 5

Which interventions apply in the care of a client at high risk for an allergic response to a latex allergy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use nonlatex gloves. This intervention is crucial in preventing an allergic response in a client with a latex allergy. Latex gloves are a common source of exposure to latex allergens, so using nonlatex gloves reduces the risk of triggering an allergic reaction. Explanation: 1. Latex gloves contain latex proteins that can cause allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. 2. By using nonlatex gloves, the risk of direct contact with latex allergens is minimized. 3. This intervention is a practical and effective measure to protect the client from exposure to latex. 4. It is a proactive approach to prevent potential allergic responses and promote client safety. Summary of other choices: B: Placing the client in a private room only does not directly address the risk of latex exposure. C: Using a blood pressure cuff from an electronic device only is not specific to preventing latex exposure. D: Avoiding medication vials with rubber stoppers is important but does not directly address the use of latex

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who has been taking a sulfonamide and should monitor for signs and symptoms of which adverse effects of the medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone marrow suppression. Sulfonamides are known to cause hematologic adverse effects, such as bone marrow suppression leading to decreased production of blood cells. This can manifest as anemia, leukopenia, or thrombocytopenia. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of bone marrow suppression, such as fatigue, pallor, easy bruising, and increased susceptibility to infections, is crucial. Explanation of other choices: A: Ototoxicity - Sulfonamides do not typically cause ototoxicity. B: Nephrotoxicity - While sulfonamides can cause kidney damage in some cases, bone marrow suppression is a more common adverse effect. D: Increased white blood cell (WBC) count - Sulfonamides do not typically lead to an increase in WBC count; instead, they are more likely to cause a decrease due to bone marrow suppression.

Question 4 of 5

A 38-year-old woman with fever, confusion, Hb 8.7 g/dL, platelets 25,000/µL, fragmented RBCs, renal failure. Most likely pathogenesis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor multimers. This patient's presentation is consistent with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), caused by a deficiency of ADAMTS13 leading to the accumulation of ultra-large von Willebrand factor multimers. This results in platelet aggregation, microthrombi formation, hemolytic anemia, and renal failure. A is incorrect because DIC typically presents with bleeding manifestations. B is incorrect as antiplatelet antibodies would not lead to the specific findings in this case. D is incorrect as verotoxin-induced endothelial damage is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome, which typically presents with bloody diarrhea.

Question 5 of 5

A 65-year-old smoker with painless hematuria, normal prostate. Most useful diagnostic test?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cystoscopy and retrograde pyelography. This is the most useful test for evaluating painless hematuria in a 65-year-old smoker. Cystoscopy allows direct visualization of the bladder and can identify potential sources of bleeding. Retrograde pyelography helps assess the upper urinary tract for any abnormalities. The other choices are not as relevant in this context: A (urine culture) is used for diagnosing urinary tract infections, B (PSA) is for prostate cancer screening, and C (bladder scan) is used for assessing bladder volume, not for evaluating hematuria.

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