When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume three to four servings of dairy each day. During the third trimester of pregnancy, calcium needs increase to support the baby's bone development. Dairy products are a rich source of calcium. Adolescents are still growing themselves, so adequate calcium intake is crucial for both the mother and baby. B: Increasing caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories is not specific to the third trimester and may lead to excessive weight gain, which can be harmful. C: Limiting sodium intake to less than 1 gram is not necessary during pregnancy, and some sodium is required for maintaining fluid balance. D: Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day is important, but it is not specific to the third trimester and may vary based on individual needs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Respiratory rate 18/min) Rationale: A normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-60 breaths/min. A rate of 18/min is below the normal range, indicating potential respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Summary of other choices: A: Heart rate 168/min - Normal range for a newborn is 120-160/min. C: Tremors - Common in newborns due to immature nervous system, usually self-resolving. D: Fine crackles - May be present due to residual amniotic fluid and typically resolve without intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because dressing the baby in flame-retardant clothing is a safety measure to reduce the risk of burns. Flame-retardant clothing can help protect the baby in case of accidental exposure to fire or heat sources. Choice B is incorrect because putting a bib on the baby at night can pose a suffocation hazard. Choice C is incorrect because warming formula in the microwave can create hot spots that may burn the baby's mouth. Choice D is incorrect because covering the crib mattress with plastic can increase the risk of suffocation and overheating for the baby.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydatidiform mole. At 4 months of gestation, prune-colored discharge indicates possible passage of vesicular tissue characteristic of a molar pregnancy. This, along with continued nausea, vomiting, and larger fundal height, are signs of a hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (A) typically involves severe nausea and vomiting leading to weight loss, which the client did not experience. Threatened abortion (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping, not prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (D) is characterized by regular contractions leading to cervical changes, not the symptoms described.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all options are relevant when teaching a client about medroxyprogesterone. A, weight fluctuations can occur due to hormonal changes. B, irregular vaginal spotting is a common side effect of medroxyprogesterone. C, increasing calcium intake is important to prevent bone density loss associated with long-term medroxyprogesterone use. Therefore, all options are essential for comprehensive client education. Other choices are incorrect because excluding any of these key points could lead to incomplete information and potential misunderstandings regarding the medication's effects and management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to dehydration and ketonuria. Presence of urine ketones indicates fat breakdown due to inadequate calorie intake. Option A is within normal range for hemoglobin. Option C is within normal range for alanine aminotransferase. Option D is within normal range for blood glucose. Thus, the presence of urine ketones is the most indicative finding for hyperemesis gravidarum.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This information is crucial for the client to understand the purpose and potential benefits of the procedure. A: While choice A is similar to the correct answer, it includes unnecessary detail about who makes the incision, which may confuse the client. B: Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it would involve cutting through the anal sphincter. D: Choice D is incorrect because it introduces unnecessary information about the types of episiotomies without providing the basic understanding of what an episiotomy is.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Petechiae over the head. This is because tight nuchal cord can cause pressure on the baby's head during delivery, leading to tiny red or purple spots called petechiae due to capillary rupture. Bruising over the buttocks (A) is more common in breech deliveries, hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (B) could indicate Epstein pearls which are benign and common in newborns, and bilateral periauricular papillomas (D) are not related to nuchal cord compression.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL/hr for the IV infusion pump, we need to use the formula: (Desired dose in mg/hr * Volume of solution in mL) / Concentration of solution in mg/mL. Given: Desired dose = 2 g/hr = 2000 mg/hr Volume of solution = 500 mL Concentration of solution = 20 g in 500 mL = 20,000 mg in 500 mL = 40 mg/mL Now, plug these values into the formula: (2000 mg/hr * 500 mL) / 40 mg/mL = 25,000 mL/hr Round this to the nearest whole number, which is 25,000 mL/hr ≈ 50 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV infusion pump should be set to administer 50 mL/hr, making choice C the correct answer. Option A (60 mL/hr) and Option D (80 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated value. Option