ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to dehydration and ketonuria. Presence of urine ketones indicates fat breakdown due to inadequate calorie intake. Option A is within normal range for hemoglobin. Option C is within normal range for alanine aminotransferase. Option D is within normal range for blood glucose. Thus, the presence of urine ketones is the most indicative finding for hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium gluconate. When magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected, calcium gluconate is administered because it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the heart and central nervous system. This helps to counteract the muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias associated with magnesium toxicity. Nifedipine (A) is a calcium channel blocker and is not indicated for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine (B) is a form of vitamin B6 and is not used to treat magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate (C) is an iron supplement and is not relevant in the management of magnesium toxicity.
Question 3 of 5
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation is reviewing a new prescription of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill." Orange juice is rich in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of iron from ferrous sulfate, helping to combat iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. Taking the pill with a vitamin C source is important for optimal absorption. A: Taking the pill with breakfast may not provide enough vitamin C for optimal absorption. B: Milk may inhibit iron absorption due to its calcium content, so it is not ideal to take with ferrous sulfate. D: While increasing calcium-rich foods is important during pregnancy, it is not directly related to enhancing iron absorption from ferrous sulfate.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the choices are risk factors for preterm labor. A: Urinary tract infection can lead to inflammation and contractions. B: Multifetal pregnancy puts more stress on the uterus, increasing the risk. C: Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor due to decreased amniotic fluid levels. In summary, all the choices contribute to the increased likelihood of preterm labor.
Question 5 of 5
When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating the production of surfactant, essential for lung function. Step 2: At 32 weeks, the fetus may benefit from accelerated lung development to reduce respiratory distress. Step 3: Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not for fetal lung maturity. Step 4: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to delay preterm labor, not for lung maturity. Step 5: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker to prevent preterm labor, not for fetal lung maturity.