ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
When advising a woman considering pregnancy on nutritional needs to reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn with a neural tube defect, what information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume foods fortified with folic acid. Folic acid plays a crucial role in preventing neural tube defects in newborns. It is recommended that women of childbearing age consume 400 mcg of folic acid daily to reduce the risk. Foods fortified with folic acid include cereals, bread, and pasta. A: Limit alcohol consumption - While important for overall health, alcohol consumption is not directly related to preventing neural tube defects. B: Increase intake of iron-rich foods - Iron is essential during pregnancy, but it is not specifically linked to reducing the risk of neural tube defects. D: Avoid foods containing aspartame - Aspartame is a sweetener and does not have a direct impact on neural tube defects prevention.
Question 2 of 9
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. Quickening typically happens around 18-20 weeks, which falls between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. During this time, the fetus's movements become more pronounced and can be felt by the pregnant person. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not occur in the last trimester, end of the first trimester, or when the uterus rises out of the pelvis. These options do not align with the typical timing of quickening in pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.
Question 4 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the changes she should expect when planning to become pregnant. Identify the correct sequence of maternal changes. A. Amenorrhea B.Lightening C. Goodell's sign D. Quickening
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence of maternal changes when planning to become pregnant is A) Amenorrhea, C) Goodell's sign, D) Quickening, and B) Lightening. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation, indicating possible pregnancy. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix and vagina. Quickening is the first fetal movements felt by the mother. Lightening occurs as the baby drops lower into the pelvis. This sequence reflects the chronological order of physiological changes during pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C do not follow the correct sequence of maternal changes as outlined in pregnancy progression.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. This is the priority assessment because a newborn's ability to breathe is crucial for survival. Immediate evaluation of respiratory status is essential to ensure the baby is receiving adequate oxygenation. Hypothermia (choice B) can be addressed after addressing any respiratory issues. Accidental lacerations (choice C) are important but not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Acrocyanosis (choice D) is a common finding in newborns and does not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Tocolytic therapy is used to delay preterm labor and prevent premature birth. 2. Administering tocolytic therapy at 26 weeks of gestation allows time for corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity. 3. Delaying labor at this stage can improve neonatal outcomes. 4. Other choices are incorrect because tocolytic therapy is not indicated for fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy.
Question 7 of 9
A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin. Decelerations starting at the peak of contractions indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be caused by hyperstimulation from oxytocin. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help alleviate this issue and improve fetal oxygenation. Choice A would not address the underlying cause of the decelerations. Choice C would worsen the hyperstimulation. Choice D is not directly related to the fetal heart rate decelerations.
Question 8 of 9
A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Lochia rubra and small clots are expected postpartum. 2. The firm, midline fundus indicates normal involution. 3. No signs of excessive bleeding or fundus displacement. 4. Documenting and monitoring is appropriate for normal postpartum assessment. Summary: A: Not necessary as no complications present. B: Unnecessary and could cause discomfort. C: Bladder emptying may help fundal position but not urgent. D: Correct option for normal postpartum assessment and monitoring.
Question 9 of 9
A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Every morning before arising. This is because basal body temperature is the lowest body temperature attained during rest, typically just before waking up. Checking the temperature at this time provides the most accurate measurement of basal temperature. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because ovulation typically occurs around 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, not on days 13 to 17 specifically (A), 1 hour following intercourse is not a reliable indicator of ovulation (C), and basal temperature should be checked in the morning, not before going to bed at night (D).