ATI LPN
Medication Administration Test Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
When adding medications to a bag of intravenous (IV) fluid, the nurse will use which method to mix the solution?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When medications are added to IV fluid containers, the medication and the IV solution are mixed by holding the bag or bottle and turning it end-to-end, mixing it gently. Shaking vigorously is not appropriate; inverting the bag just once or simply allowing the bag to stand for 10 minutes may not be sufficient to mix the medication into the fluid.
Question 2 of 5
A patient says he prefers to chew rather than swallow his pills. One of the pills has the abbreviation SR behind the name of the medication. The nurse needs to remember which correct instruction regarding how to give this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sustained-release (SR) and enteric-coated tablets or capsules are forms of medications that must not be crushed before administration so as to protect the gastrointestinal lining or the medication itself. Do not break, dissolve, or crush these tablets before administering.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is the most commonly diverted medication, according to the Drug Enforcement Administration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: According to the Drug Enforcement Administration, fentanyl is the most commonly diverted medication due to its high potency and widespread use in healthcare settings, contributing significantly to the opioid crisis. It is frequently targeted by healthcare workers with access to controlled substances.
Question 4 of 5
A patient indicates a 'significant allergy' to Percocet on an admission report. The PRN list for pain management lists several drugs and looks like the example below (the checkmarks indicate the prescriber's endorsed orders). What's your next step? If the patient cannot take Percocet, administer fentanyl 50 mcg x 1; may repeat in 15 minutes one time only; Oxycodone with APAP x1 as needed one time only; Tramadol 50 mg PRN for pain; Acetaminophen with Codeine #3 PRN for pain; Dilaudid 2 mg PO x1 if oxycodone/APAP is ineffective.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Percocet contains oxycodone and acetaminophen, so the patient’s allergy likely relates to oxycodone or the combination. The order includes oxycodone/APAP, which should be avoided. Fentanyl is an opioid alternative, but tramadol or Dilaudid might be safer depending on the allergy specifics. Contacting the prescriber to clarify the allergy and adjust the order is the safest next step, as nurses cannot assume alternatives without confirmation.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) on a client with a chronic wound. Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the therapy is successful?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The wound has decreased in drainage is an outcome that would indicate that NPWT is successful. NPWT is a type of therapy that uses a vacuum device to apply negative pressure to the wound, which removes excess fluid, debris, and infectious material from the wound bed. This reduces edema, inflammation, and bacterial load, and promotes blood flow, oxygenation, and granulation tissue formation.