When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?

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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: Option D is the correct answer because it directly addresses the client's experience with penicillin, providing crucial details about the allergic reaction. By asking what happens when the client takes penicillin, the nurse gains specific information to assess the severity and type of allergic reaction. This helps in determining appropriate interventions and alternative medications. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not focus on gathering detailed information about the client's allergic reaction to penicillin. Option A is too broad, option B is not relevant to the current situation, and option C does not directly address the client's individual experience.

Question 2 of 9

A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ultrasonography and nonstress test. At 38 weeks gestation, a biophysical profile (BPP) is typically done to assess fetal well-being. Ultrasonography is used to evaluate fetal movements, tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. The nonstress test assesses fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement, indicating fetal well-being. Chorionic villus sampling (A) and amniocentesis (B) are invasive procedures not typically done as part of a routine BPP. Oxytocin challenge test (D) is not indicated in this scenario as it is used to assess placental function in high-risk pregnancies.

Question 3 of 9

When assessing a client reporting severe pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, which sign would most likely indicate appendicitis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point. McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant and is a classic sign of appendicitis. Rebound tenderness at this point indicates inflammation in the peritoneum, suggesting appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are not specific to appendicitis. Positive Murphy's sign is related to cholecystitis, Rovsing's sign is seen in acute appendicitis but is not as specific as rebound tenderness at McBurney's point, and Cullen's sign is associated with acute pancreatitis.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 indicates an infection, which can be a contraindication for surgery. The nurse should inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated to prevent complications. Choice A is incorrect as increasing oxygen for Client A may not be necessary based on the oxygen saturation level of 94%, which is within the normal range. Choice B is incorrect because determining if packed cells are available in the blood bank for Client B with a hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL does not address the immediate concern of the possible surgical delay due to infection. Choice C is incorrect as adding a banana to Client C's breakfast tray for a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is not a priority compared to addressing the potential surgical delay for Client D.

Question 5 of 9

Which intervention should the nurse implement to enhance the efficacy of the client's asthma medication therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the albuterol inhaler before other inhaled medications. Administering albuterol first helps open airways, allowing better absorption of subsequent medications. Option B does not directly enhance medication efficacy. Option C promotes hydration but doesn't affect medication efficacy. Option D does not specifically enhance medication therapy.

Question 6 of 9

A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a non-confrontational and calming approach to de-escalate the situation. It helps redirect the client's focus and encourages self-regulation. Choice A may reinforce the aggressive behavior by rewarding it. Choice B (putting behavior on extinction) may escalate the situation further. Choice C (decreasing TV volume) does not address the client's behavior directly.

Question 7 of 9

The client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught by the nurse about dietary modifications. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase your intake of high-calcium foods. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density, and calcium is essential for bone health. Increasing calcium intake can help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss. Foods high in calcium, such as dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and fortified foods, are beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis. Summary of other choices: B: Limiting intake of vitamin D-rich foods is not advised, as vitamin D plays a crucial role in calcium absorption and bone health. C: Avoiding foods high in phosphorus is not necessary, as phosphorus is also important for bone health and overall body function. D: Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended, as high sodium intake can lead to calcium loss from the bones, worsening osteoporosis.

Question 8 of 9

The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to low cortisol and aldosterone levels. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, causing melanin deposition. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium and water loss. Choice A is incorrect because Addison's disease does not typically present with hypertension or hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as exophthalmos and tachycardia are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common manifestations of Addison's disease.

Question 9 of 9

Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with an absolute neutrophil count < 500 is at high risk for serious infections due to severe neutropenia. Neutrophils are crucial for fighting infections, and a low count puts the client at immediate risk. Therefore, intervention is required to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice A: A hemoglobin of 7 grams in a client with GI bleeding receiving a blood transfusion indicates anemia, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic. Choice B: A fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl in a client with pancreatitis is elevated but does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or experiencing complications. Choice C: A bilirubin level 4 times the normal value in a jaundiced client with hepatitis is concerning but does not require immediate intervention unless there are signs of severe liver dysfunction or complications.

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