ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
What term refers to the agreement to keep promises?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The term 'fidelity' specifically refers to the agreement to keep promises. Fidelity in healthcare ethics emphasizes the importance of healthcare professionals keeping their commitments to patients. Choice B, 'Non-maleficence,' relates to the ethical principle of doing no harm. Choice C, 'Autonomy,' refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Choice D, 'Justice,' pertains to fairness and equality in the distribution of healthcare resources.
Question 2 of 9
A client has a prescription for ranitidine 150 mg PO BID. Available is ranitidine syrup 15 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer each day?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To administer a total of 300 mg daily (150 mg PO BID), the nurse should give 20 mL of the syrup. This is calculated by dividing the total daily dose (300 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (15 mg/mL), which equals 20 mL. Choice B (15 mL), C (25 mL), and D (10 mL) are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume of syrup needed to deliver the prescribed dose.
Question 3 of 9
What are the common complications of diabetes, and how should they be managed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common complications of diabetes include retinopathy (damage to the retina) and nephropathy (kidney damage). These complications can be managed effectively with regular screening to detect any signs early on. Choice B is incorrect as neuropathy and cardiovascular disease are other complications of diabetes but are managed through various treatments and lifestyle modifications, not just medication. Choice C is incorrect as although foot ulcers and hypertension are associated with diabetes, the management involves proper foot care practices and blood pressure control, respectively. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension and liver disease are not the typical complications of diabetes, and insulin therapy is not the primary management for these conditions.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse has agreed to serve as an interpreter for an older adult client who is assigned to another nurse. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of this role?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because the nurse should inform the client of their availability to interpret, ensuring that communication is clear and culturally appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as interpreters in healthcare settings usually do not receive fees for providing interpretation services. Choice C is incorrect because suggesting the use of a family member as an interpreter may not ensure accurate communication, as they may not be trained or impartial. Choice D is incorrect because stating that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift does not address the current situation where the nurse has agreed to interpret for the client.
Question 5 of 9
How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.
Question 6 of 9
A client who experienced an acute myocardial infarction expresses concern about fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote self-care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote self-care for a client who experienced an acute myocardial infarction and is experiencing fatigue. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue. Asking family members to assist with all self-care tasks (Choice A) may hinder the client's independence. Instructing the client to remain in bed until fully rested (Choice C) may lead to deconditioning and dependency. Assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client (Choice D) does not empower the client to regain independence or actively participate in self-care.
Question 7 of 9
How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a tracheostomy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess a patient with a tracheostomy, the healthcare professional should primarily focus on monitoring for infection and ensuring the airway remains patent. Choice A is the correct answer as these actions are crucial for tracheostomy management. Suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified oxygen (Choice B) are interventions that may be necessary based on the assessment findings but are not the initial assessment steps. Similarly, cleaning the stoma and changing tracheostomy ties (Choice C) are important aspects of tracheostomy care but do not specifically address the initial assessment. Educating the patient on tracheostomy care (Choice D) is important, but it is not the primary assessment action needed when assessing a patient with a tracheostomy.
Question 8 of 9
What are the nursing interventions for a patient with a pressure ulcer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient with a pressure ulcer is to clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to the wound healing process. Choice B is incorrect because while nutrition is important for wound healing, a high-protein diet alone is not a specific intervention for a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as antibiotics are only used if there is an infection present. Choice D is also incorrect as a low-sodium diet and monitoring for fluid retention are more related to conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, not specifically pressure ulcer care.
Question 9 of 9
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.