What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Emptying the colostomy bag regularly is essential to prevent leakage and infection. By regularly emptying the bag, the risk of irritation to the skin surrounding the stoma is reduced. Providing a high-fiber diet is important for overall bowel health but is not directly related to colostomy care. While monitoring for signs of infection is crucial, the primary focus should be on proper bag emptying. Changing the colostomy bag every 3 days may not be necessary for all patients and could vary based on individual needs and the type of colostomy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: All of the above.' Edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath are key signs of fluid overload, particularly common in patients with heart failure. Edema refers to the swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, hypertension can be a result of fluid volume overload, and shortness of breath can occur due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. Therefore, all these signs collectively indicate fluid overload in a patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each alone may not necessarily indicate fluid overload, but when seen together, they strongly suggest fluid volume excess in the body.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dependent edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation, leading to fluid accumulation in the systemic circulation. This fluid backs up in the venous system, causing increased pressure in the veins of the body, resulting in dependent edema, usually starting in the lower extremities. Elevated blood glucose (choice A) is not directly related to right-sided heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice B) may occur in conditions like acute kidney injury but is not a specific finding of right-sided heart failure. Jaundice (choice D) is more commonly associated with liver dysfunction, not typically seen in right-sided heart failure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water first. This action helps to relieve blockages that may be causing the decrease in gastric output and nausea. Turning the client onto their left side may not directly address the issue with the NG tube. Increasing the suction pressure can further exacerbate the problem and should not be done without assessing the situation first. Removing the NG tube and replacing it with a new one is a more invasive step that should be considered only if other measures are unsuccessful.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in preparing a blood transfusion is to verify the client's blood type before starting the transfusion. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Administering the blood via IV push (Choice A) is incorrect as it skips the essential step of verifying the blood type. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice C) is important but comes after verifying the blood type. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is not part of the preparation process for a blood transfusion.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using a bed exit alarm system is a non-restrictive intervention that alerts staff when the client tries to leave the bed, promoting safety and preventing falls. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can have adverse effects and should be avoided whenever possible. Choice C is not the priority for a client at risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls without proper supervision. Choice D is also not recommended as raising all four side rails can lead to restraint and should be used cautiously, if at all. Therefore, the best option is to use a bed exit alarm system to ensure the client's safety while allowing some freedom of movement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode.' Nitroglycerin can be taken up to three times during an episode to relieve angina. Choice A is incorrect because the client should place the tablet under the tongue and wait for it to dissolve, not wait for 10 minutes. Choice B is incorrect because taking up to five tablets during an angina episode is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets are meant to be taken sublingually, not swallowed.