What is the recommended intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia include monitoring for signs of infection and administering antibiotics. Neutropenia is characterized by a low neutrophil count, which increases the risk of infections. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt treatment, while administering antibiotics helps prevent or treat any infections that may occur. Isolating the patient and providing a low-microbial diet (Choice B) are not necessary unless the patient develops an active infection. Monitoring vital signs and avoiding unnecessary invasive procedures (Choice C) are important but do not specifically address the increased infection risk in neutropenic patients. Encouraging the patient to engage in social activities (Choice D) is not appropriate for a neutropenic patient due to the risk of exposure to infectious agents.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because assault involves threatening a client with harm or unwanted procedures. In this scenario, informing a client that they will be given an injection against their will constitutes assault. Choices A, B, and C do not involve the element of threatening harm or unwanted procedures, making them incorrect. Choice A is more related to neglect, choice B is related to informing the client about a procedure, and choice C is related to informed consent and refusal of treatment, not assault.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, indicating phlebitis, is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. This is crucial to prevent further complications. Elevating the IV site and applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) is not the primary intervention for phlebitis. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the IV when phlebitis occurs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is the correct choice for treating acute asthma attacks because it is a short-acting bronchodilator that provides quick relief by relaxing the muscles in the airways. Beclomethasone (choice A) and Salmeterol (choice B) are long-acting medications used for controlling and preventing asthma symptoms but are not for immediate relief during an acute attack. Montelukast (choice D) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for asthma maintenance therapy and not for acute asthma attacks.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.