ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the primary purpose of repositioning a patient who is immobile?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Repositioning an immobile patient primarily aims to prevent pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on skin over bony areas, like the sacrum or heels, and enhancing blood flow. Prolonged immobility risks tissue breakdown due to constant compression, making regular movement a cornerstone of preventive care in nursing. While shifting positions can secondarily support joint mobility, this isn't the main goal specific exercises target that more effectively. Building muscle strength requires active effort beyond repositioning, and though respiratory benefits may occur, they're addressed through targeted interventions like breathing exercises. This focus on skin integrity reflects nursing's priority to mitigate a common, severe complication of immobility, ensuring patient safety and comfort through proactive care.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assisting in caring for the client immediately after removal of the endotracheal tube following radical neck dissection. The nurse interprets that which sign experienced by the client should be reported immediately to the registered nurse (RN)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Post-extubation after radical neck dissection, stridor (A) indicates airway obstruction (e.g., edema, laryngospasm), requiring immediate RN reporting. Lung congestion (B) or pink sputum (C) suggest fluid but are less urgent. A rate of 26 (D) is elevated but not critical alone. A is correct. Rationale: Stridor signals potential airway compromise, a life-threatening emergency post-neck surgery due to swelling or structural changes, necessitating rapid intervention like reintubation or steroids, per post-operative care standards, unlike less acute findings.
Question 3 of 9
During an abdominal assessment, what is the correct sequence of steps for a healthcare provider to follow?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence of steps is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. This sequence is followed to prevent altering bowel sounds. Inspection allows for visual observation, followed by auscultation to listen for bowel sounds without causing disturbance, percussion to assess for tympany or dullness, and finally palpation to feel for any abnormalities or tenderness. Choice A is incorrect because palpation should come after percussion. Choice B is incorrect as auscultation should be performed after inspection. Choice C is incorrect because palpation should be the final step after percussion.
Question 4 of 9
According to Maslow, which of the following is TRUE about a self actualized person?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Maslow's self-actualized individual (1940s) decides independently e.g., rejecting trends for ethics. They predict events (insight), aren't self-centered (altruistic), and minimize conflict. Nurses foster this e.g., supporting unconventional choices enhancing self-directed health decisions, per humanistic theory.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is the nurse's role in the health promotion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teaching clients to manage their health effectively is a key nursing role in promotion.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube attached to a ventilator. The high-pressure alarm sounds on the ventilator. The nurse prepares to perform which priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A high-pressure alarm on a ventilator indicates obstruction or resistance, often from secretions; suctioning (A) is the priority to clear the airway. Checking for disconnection (B) fits low-pressure alarms. Notifying respiratory therapy (C) delays action. Evaluating the cuff (D) addresses leaks, not high pressure. A is correct. Rationale: Suctioning resolves common causes like mucus plugs, restoring ventilation swiftly, a first-line action per ventilator management protocols, critical to prevent hypoxia or barotrauma.
Question 7 of 9
During an admission interview, a nurse is assessing a client's personal identity. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When assessing personal identity, it is important to ask questions that prompt clients to describe themselves. Question B, 'How would you describe yourself?' is the most appropriate as it allows the client to share their own perceptions and characteristics, aiding in understanding their personal identity. Choices A, C, and D are more focused on specific personal details such as marital status, employment status, and parental status, which do not directly contribute to understanding personal identity.
Question 8 of 9
Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: BP 60/40 (B) is highest priority; severe hypotension threatens perfusion, per ABCs (circulation). Pain (A), fever (C), and cyanosis (D) are urgent but secondary to life-threatening shock. B demands immediate action, making it correct.
Question 9 of 9
During a teaching session on dietary management for heart failure, a client makes a statement. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because decreasing fluid intake is essential in managing fluid retention and symptoms of heart failure. Restricting fluids helps prevent excessive fluid buildup in the body, thus reducing the workload on the heart and alleviating symptoms like swelling and shortness of breath. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of foods high in sodium can exacerbate fluid retention and worsen heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium-rich foods is beneficial for some heart conditions but not heart failure specifically. Decreasing fiber intake is not a standard recommendation for heart failure management.