ATI LPN
Cardiovascular Disease Quiz Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the nurse's priority action if a client receiving milrinone develops a blood pressure of 88/60 mmHg?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Milrinone can cause hypotension; adjusting the infusion and notifying the provider is necessary.
Question 2 of 5
What is the priority action when educating a client with heart failure about potassium-sparing diuretics?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause hyperkalemia, so potassium intake should not be increased. Blood pressure monitoring is important, and muscle weakness may indicate electrolyte imbalances.
Question 3 of 5
A 74 year old Caucasian female had a bone density study(DXA) which revealed T-score of the right femoral neck of -2.8, left femoral neck of -2.9. The spine had degenerative changes and could not be interpreted. FRAX calculation revealed fracture risk of 10% ten year risk of hip fracture and 30% ten year risk of major osteoporotic fracture. She had a traumatic wrist fracture a few years ago. Family history is positive for a mother with a hip fracture. Management of this patient would best include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Treatment is recommended for patients with high FRAX scores and low T-scores. Repleting vitamin D and starting anti-resorptive or anabolic agents are effective treatments.
Question 4 of 5
A 34 y/o wom an presents with an 8 month history of bloating & abdominal pain relieved after BM. She tends toward constipation. She has a history of dysmenorrhea & a sister with dermatitis herpetiformis. She denies travel, ETOH use, or weight loss. Labs show mild Iron Deficiency Anemia and negative Tissue Transglutaminase Ab. What is the next best step in evaluation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Symptoms suggest IBS or celiac disease. Negative TTG Ab doesn't fully rule out celiac (sensitivity ~90%), especially with a family history of dermatitis herpetiformis (celiac-related). Small bowel biopsies via EGD are the gold standard for diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5
A 40-year-old male presents with fever, chills, and a new heart murmur. Blood cultures grow Streptococcus viridans. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of fever, a new heart murmur, and positive blood cultures for Streptococcus viridans strongly suggest infective endocarditis.