What is the nurse's priority action for a client with a history of COPD and atrial fibrillation prescribed propranolol?

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Question 1 of 5

What is the nurse's priority action for a client with a history of COPD and atrial fibrillation prescribed propranolol?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol can exacerbate bronchoconstriction in clients with COPD, so respiratory function must be assessed.

Question 2 of 5

What potential complication should the nurse monitor for in a client receiving digoxin who is also taking furosemide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.

Question 3 of 5

A 65 year old male presents with recurrent calcium kidney stones. He is found to have a calcium level of 11.8 mg/dl. PTH level is mildly elevated. Serum creatinine is 1.4 mg/dl. 24 hour urine calcium excretion is elevated. Parathyroid Sestamibi scan is performed but does not reveal any abnormality. The most likely cause of the primary hyperparathyroidism is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D based on the typical presentation of primary hyperparathyroidism. Solitary adenoma accounts for 80-85% of cases, though multiple adenomas can also occur.

Question 4 of 5

A 54 y/o mal with long history of GERD symptoms underwent an EGD to exclude Barrett's Esophagus. A 7 cm salmon colored tongue extending from the esophagogastric junction was noted. Multiple biopsies revealed intestinal metaplasia with low-grade dysplasia. What should be the next step in this patient's management?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Barrett's esophagus with low-grade dysplasia requires confirmation by an expert GI pathologist due to variability in interpretation, as management (e.g., ablation vs. surveillance) hinges on accurate diagnosis.

Question 5 of 5

A 60-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease presents with recurrent angina. Coronary angiography shows a 90% stenosis in the left anterior descending artery. What is the most appropriate next step?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A significant stenosis in the left anterior descending artery warrants revascularization. PCI is preferred for single-vessel disease.

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