ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most appropriate statement for a nurse to make to a client who has recently experienced a perinatal death?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I'm sad for you." This response shows empathy and acknowledges the client's feelings without making assumptions or providing false reassurance. It validates the client's emotions and offers support. Incorrect choices: A: This statement assumes the client's feelings and may not be comforting. C: This statement is insensitive and can cause unnecessary guilt or blame. D: While well-intentioned, this statement may not align with the client's beliefs and can be dismissive of their grief.
Question 2 of 9
A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Your newborn should appear content after each feeding. This is important as it indicates the baby is getting enough milk and is satisfied. If the baby appears content, it suggests effective breastfeeding. Choice A is incorrect as milk transition typically occurs within a few days, not 10. Choice B is incorrect as breasts feeling firm is not a reliable indicator of successful breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect as the number of wet diapers is a better indicator of proper hydration, not just urination frequency.
Question 3 of 9
A newborn was delivered vaginally and experienced a tight nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Petechiae over the head. This is because tight nuchal cord can cause pressure on the baby's head during delivery, leading to tiny red or purple spots called petechiae due to capillary rupture. Bruising over the buttocks (A) is more common in breech deliveries, hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (B) could indicate Epstein pearls which are benign and common in newborns, and bilateral periauricular papillomas (D) are not related to nuchal cord compression.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydatidiform mole. At 4 months of gestation, prune-colored discharge indicates possible passage of vesicular tissue characteristic of a molar pregnancy. This, along with continued nausea, vomiting, and larger fundal height, are signs of a hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (A) typically involves severe nausea and vomiting leading to weight loss, which the client did not experience. Threatened abortion (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping, not prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (D) is characterized by regular contractions leading to cervical changes, not the symptoms described.
Question 5 of 9
When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume three to four servings of dairy each day. During the third trimester of pregnancy, calcium needs increase to support the baby's bone development. Dairy products are a rich source of calcium. Adolescents are still growing themselves, so adequate calcium intake is crucial for both the mother and baby. B: Increasing caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories is not specific to the third trimester and may lead to excessive weight gain, which can be harmful. C: Limiting sodium intake to less than 1 gram is not necessary during pregnancy, and some sodium is required for maintaining fluid balance. D: Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day is important, but it is not specific to the third trimester and may vary based on individual needs.
Question 6 of 9
During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio. This test is used to assess fetal lung maturity by determining the ratio of two substances present in amniotic fluid. An L/S ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates mature fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. A: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used to screen for neural tube defects, not fetal lung maturity. C: Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage. D: Indirect Coombs' test is used to detect antibodies in maternal blood that may attack fetal red blood cells, not assess fetal lung maturity. In summary, the L/S ratio test is the most appropriate choice to assess fetal lung maturity during preterm labor, as it directly correlates with the development of the fetal lungs.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recommend that the client perform conscious relaxation techniques daily. Headaches during pregnancy can be common due to hormonal changes and increased blood volume. The nurse should recommend non-pharmacological interventions like relaxation techniques to manage headaches safely without medication. Conscious relaxation techniques can help reduce stress and tension, potentially alleviating headaches. Ibuprofen (choice A) is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. Ginseng tea (choice C) is not safe for pregnant women as it may lead to complications. Soaking in a hot bath (choice D) with a water temperature of 105°F can raise the body temperature, which is not advised during pregnancy as it may harm the baby.
Question 8 of 9
A client at 40 weeks of gestation is experiencing contractions every 3 to 5 minutes, becoming stronger. A vaginal exam by the registered nurse reveals the client's cervix is 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station. The client requests pain medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to administer opioid analgesic medication (Choice C). At 40 weeks gestation with contractions every 3-5 minutes, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station, the client is in active labor. Pain medication is appropriate to manage discomfort during labor. Opioid analgesics can help reduce pain intensity while still allowing the client to remain alert and participate in labor. Ice chips (Choice A and D) are not directly related to pain management in labor. Inserting a urinary catheter (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific concerns about bladder distention.
Question 9 of 9
A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's room number. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not appropriate as it does not uniquely identify the client and can lead to errors. The room number may change, or there could be multiple clients in the same room. Telephone number, birth date, and medical record number are more reliable secondary identifiers as they are unique to the client and less likely to be confused with another individual. It is essential to use accurate and reliable identifiers to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors.