What is an important teaching point for a patient prescribed dabigatran for atrial fibrillation?

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Question 1 of 9

What is an important teaching point for a patient prescribed dabigatran for atrial fibrillation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Dabigatran is an anticoagulant medication that comes in capsules, which should not be crushed or chewed to maintain its extended-release formulation. 2. Crushing or chewing the capsules can lead to an increased risk of bleeding due to rapid release of the medication. 3. Therefore, advising the patient not to crush or chew the capsules is crucial to ensure the safety and efficacy of dabigatran therapy. Summary: A: Taking with food is not necessary for dabigatran absorption. C: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with anticoagulant therapy. D: There is no need to avoid all dairy products while taking dabigatran.

Question 2 of 9

What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary action of amlodipine is to reduce blood pressure by relaxing and dilating blood vessels, leading to improved blood flow and lower blood pressure. This is achieved by blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels. Increasing heart rate (A), lowering cholesterol levels (C), and decreasing blood sugar levels (D) are not the primary actions of amlodipine and are not directly related to its mechanism of action in treating hypertension.

Question 3 of 9

A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are upset that this incident has brought you here." This response acknowledges the client's feelings of anger and validates her emotions, showing empathy and understanding. It demonstrates active listening and therapeutic communication, which is crucial in building trust and rapport with the client. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings of anger and invalidates her emotions by shifting the focus to being grateful instead. Choice B is incorrect as it minimizes the client's emotional response by focusing on the material aspect of the situation rather than addressing her feelings. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's emotional state and is a closed-ended question that does not encourage further discussion or exploration of the client's feelings.

Question 4 of 9

For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol is to prevent asthma attacks. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist that helps to relax the muscles of the airways over an extended period, reducing the likelihood of bronchospasms and asthma exacerbations. It is not used for relieving acute bronchospasm (choice A), suppressing cough (choice C), or thinning respiratory secretions (choice D) as these are not the main therapeutic effects of salmeterol in asthma management.

Question 5 of 9

When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it violates patient confidentiality. Reading a client's history and physical in a public area breaches the client's privacy rights. The other choices do not directly compromise patient confidentiality. A involves discussing a cure for AIDS, which is not a breach of confidentiality. C involves sharing personal experiences with the client, and D involves discussing a client's history of drug abuse in a visitor's lounge, which may not be overheard by the client or staff directly involved in the client's care.

Question 6 of 9

The healthcare provider prescribes 15 mg/kg of Streptomycin for an infant weighing 4 pounds. The drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W to run over 8 hours. How much Streptomycin will the infant receive?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose of Streptomycin, we first need to convert the infant's weight from pounds to kg (4 lbs = 1.81 kg). Then, we multiply the weight in kg by the prescribed dose (15 mg/kg) to get the total dose (1.81 kg * 15 mg/kg = 27.15 mg). Since the drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W, the infant will receive 27.15 mg in 25 ml solution. To find how much Streptomycin the infant actually receives, we need to calculate the amount in 1 ml (27.15 mg / 25 ml = 1.086 mg/ml). Finally, to determine how much the infant will receive over 8 hours, we multiply the concentration by the infusion rate (1.086 mg/ml * 25 ml * 8 hours = 217.2 mg). Therefore, the correct answer is A: 9 mg, as it represents the amount

Question 7 of 9

Which signs or symptoms are characteristic of an adult client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because central-type obesity with thin extremities is a classic characteristic of Cushing's syndrome due to excess cortisol. This pattern of weight distribution is caused by cortisol's impact on fat metabolism and distribution. A is incorrect because a husky voice and hoarseness are not typical symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. B is incorrect as warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin is not a common finding in Cushing's syndrome. C is incorrect because visible swelling of the neck without pain is not a typical sign of Cushing's syndrome.

Question 8 of 9

While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately. The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, as evidenced by decreased deep tendon reflexes, bradypnea (respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute), oliguria (urinary output of 90 ml in 4 hours), and elevated magnesium sulfate level of 9 mg/dl. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications such as respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and central nervous system depression. Continuing the infusion (choice A) would worsen the toxicity. Decreasing the infusion (choice B) may not be sufficient to address the toxicity. Administering calcium gluconate (choice D) is not the immediate priority; stopping the magnesium sulfate infusion is essential to prevent further harm.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to bind with phosphorus in foods, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is important as ESRD patients often have high levels of phosphorus in their blood, which can lead to complications like cardiovascular disease. Taking RenaGel with meals ensures that it binds with phosphorus in the food, reducing its absorption. Choice A is incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion associated with spicy foods. Choice C is incorrect as RenaGel does not promote stomach emptying or prevent gastric reflux. Choice D is incorrect as RenaGel does not buffer hydrochloric acid or prevent gastric erosion.

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