What instruction should a patient with a history of hypertension be provided when being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C is correct because thiazide diuretics can cause fluid retention, leading to weight gain, which may indicate worsening heart failure or hypertension. Daily weight monitoring helps detect fluid retention early, enabling timely intervention. Summary: A: Incorrect. Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss, so avoiding potassium-rich foods is not necessary. B: Incorrect. Taking the medication in the morning is preferred to prevent nocturia and sleep disturbances. D: Incorrect. Fluid intake should not be limited unless advised by a healthcare provider to prevent dehydration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient void immediately before the procedure. This step is crucial to prevent accidental puncture of the bladder during paracentesis. Voiding helps empty the bladder, reducing the risk of injury and ensuring a safer procedure. Incorrect choices: B: Position the patient flat in bed - Incorrect, as the patient should be in a sitting position with legs dangling over the side of the bed during the procedure. C: Administer a full liquid diet - Incorrect, as a full liquid diet is not necessary for paracentesis preparation. D: Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes - Incorrect, as ambulation is not relevant to preparing for paracentesis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy because heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected in the PTT results. Monitoring PTT helps to ensure that the patient's blood is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. A: Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, which affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. C: Bleeding time is not typically used to monitor heparin therapy effectiveness. D: Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not directly reflect the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing or treating DVT.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Statins can cause muscle pain or weakness as a side effect. Step 2: Prompt reporting of muscle pain or weakness is crucial to address potential myopathy or rhabdomyolysis. Step 3: Nurse should educate patient to report any muscle symptoms promptly for timely intervention and prevention of complications. Summary: Option B is correct as it emphasizes the importance of monitoring and reporting potential side effects of statins. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as taking with food, increasing grapefruit juice intake, and avoiding potassium-rich foods are not relevant considerations for statin therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C, hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in CKD patients with anemia. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps assess the effectiveness of the therapy in improving anemia. If hemoglobin levels increase, it indicates the therapy is working. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Serum creatinine - This measures kidney function, not the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for anemia in CKD patients. B: White blood cell count - Monitors immune function, not related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. D: Serum potassium - Important for monitoring electrolyte balance in CKD patients but not specific to assessing erythropoietin therapy effectiveness.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an African-American infant losing weight rapidly is a sign of potential malnutrition or health issue that requires immediate intervention. The nurse should assess the infant's feeding, growth, and health status to address the problem promptly. Choice A is incorrect as cupping is a cultural practice that may not necessarily harm the child and should be respected. Choice B is incorrect as being late for appointments is not a direct health risk that requires immediate intervention. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding direct eye contact is a cultural norm for some Native-American individuals and does not indicate a health emergency.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I can take acetaminophen for pain." Acetaminophen can be harmful to the liver, especially in individuals with liver cirrhosis. The liver is responsible for metabolizing acetaminophen, and in cirrhosis, its function is impaired, leading to potential toxicity. Choice A is correct as alcohol can worsen liver damage. Choice B is correct as excess salt can lead to fluid retention and complications. Choice D is correct as a balanced diet is important for overall health. Therefore, the statement about taking acetaminophen indicates a need for further teaching.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, administering prescribed opioid analgesics. This intervention is appropriate for severe abdominal pain in acute pancreatitis as opioids are effective in managing pain. Encouraging oral intake (A) can worsen symptoms, a supine position (B) can exacerbate pain, and a heating pad (D) can aggravate inflammation. Administering opioid analgesics provides direct pain relief and is the most effective intervention for alleviating severe abdominal pain in acute pancreatitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gamma globulin. Gamma globulin contains antibodies that can provide immediate passive immunity against hepatitis B virus. Administering corticosteroids (A) would not protect against hepatitis B infection. Hepatitis B vaccine (C) is used for prevention, not immediate protection. Fresh frozen plasma (D) does not contain specific antibodies against hepatitis B.