What instruction should a patient with a history of hypertension be provided when being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C is correct because thiazide diuretics can cause fluid retention, leading to weight gain, which may indicate worsening heart failure or hypertension. Daily weight monitoring helps detect fluid retention early, enabling timely intervention. Summary: A: Incorrect. Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss, so avoiding potassium-rich foods is not necessary. B: Incorrect. Taking the medication in the morning is preferred to prevent nocturia and sleep disturbances. D: Incorrect. Fluid intake should not be limited unless advised by a healthcare provider to prevent dehydration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gamma globulin. Gamma globulin contains antibodies that can provide immediate passive immunity against hepatitis B virus. Administering corticosteroids (A) would not protect against hepatitis B infection. Hepatitis B vaccine (C) is used for prevention, not immediate protection. Fresh frozen plasma (D) does not contain specific antibodies against hepatitis B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The mother who took her children from school because aliens were after them should be seen first. This choice indicates potential harm to the children due to the mother's delusions, posing an immediate safety concern. The nurse needs to assess the situation and ensure the children's safety. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety risks. B is a history of substance abuse but no current immediate danger. C is newly diagnosed and can wait for evaluation, as can D who may need support but is not in immediate danger. Prioritizing safety is crucial in mental health nursing.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because stopping warfarin one week before surgery reduces the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. Warfarin's anticoagulant effect can persist for several days, so stopping it earlier allows time for its effects to diminish. Choice A is incorrect because continuing warfarin until the day of surgery increases bleeding risk. Choice B is incorrect as stopping warfarin only three days before surgery may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is not a suitable substitute for warfarin in most cases.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle weakness. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This leads to impaired muscle contraction and weakness, especially in the face, neck, and extremities. Joint pain (A) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis. Loss of sensation (C) is more indicative of a sensory nerve disorder rather than a motor disorder like myasthenia gravis. Severe headache (D) is not a common symptom of myasthenia gravis; it is more likely to be associated with other conditions such as migraines or intracranial pathology.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C is correct because thiazide diuretics can cause fluid retention, leading to weight gain, which may indicate worsening heart failure or hypertension. Daily weight monitoring helps detect fluid retention early, enabling timely intervention. Summary: A: Incorrect. Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss, so avoiding potassium-rich foods is not necessary. B: Incorrect. Taking the medication in the morning is preferred to prevent nocturia and sleep disturbances. D: Incorrect. Fluid intake should not be limited unless advised by a healthcare provider to prevent dehydration.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because teaching glucose self-monitoring and medication administration is the priority action to ensure the patient can manage their condition effectively post-discharge. This step is crucial for immediate management of hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus. Option A is incorrect as addressing cardiovascular risk can be important but not the immediate priority. Option B is important but not as urgent as self-monitoring and medication administration. Option D is also important for long-term management but not as critical as ensuring immediate control of blood glucose levels through monitoring and medication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rotate injection sites within the same region. This is important to prevent lipohypertrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Administering insulin at the same site each time (B) can lead to tissue damage. Storing insulin in the freezer (A) can alter its effectiveness. Shaking the vial vigorously (D) can cause air bubbles and affect insulin dosage accuracy. Rotation of injection sites within the same region is crucial for consistent absorption and preventing complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed for liver cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels. It works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, preventing its accumulation in the bloodstream. This helps prevent hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of cirrhosis. Other choices are incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect blood sugar levels, liver inflammation, or bile flow in the context of liver cirrhosis.