ATI LPN
Immune System Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What condition can result from the bone demineralization associated with immobility?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Osteoporosis. Immobility leads to decreased weight-bearing stress on bones, causing bone demineralization and increased risk of osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone density and increased fracture risk. Pooling of blood (B) is more related to circulatory issues. Urinary retention (C) is a result of bladder dysfunction. Susceptibility to infection (D) is not directly related to bone demineralization from immobility.
Question 2 of 5
What should be monitored when a patient is taking NSAIDs? (Select ONE that does not apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gloves only. Monitoring gloves is not relevant when a patient is taking NSAIDs. - B: CNS adverse effects should be monitored due to potential risks such as headaches or dizziness. - C: Cardiac adverse effects should be monitored as NSAIDs can increase the risk of heart attacks or stroke. - D: Renal adverse effects should be monitored because NSAIDs can lead to kidney damage. In summary, monitoring gloves is not necessary when a patient is taking NSAIDs, whereas monitoring CNS, cardiac, and renal adverse effects is essential for patient safety.
Question 3 of 5
Which finding during the assessment may trigger concerns about pernicious anemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which can occur after gastric bypass surgery due to malabsorption. Excessive fatigue is a common symptom of pernicious anemia. B: Hematuria is associated with kidney or bladder issues, not pernicious anemia. C: Pancytopenia is a decrease in all three blood cell types, not specific to pernicious anemia. D: Epistaxis is nosebleeds, which are not typically associated with pernicious anemia.
Question 4 of 5
Which hematological assessment statement is accurate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because liver enlargement is typically assessed by measuring the number of centimeters it can be palpated below the ribcage. This method helps determine if the liver is enlarged without the need for imaging. The other choices are incorrect because lymph node assessment usually starts in the neck, the spleen size is assessed by palpating the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, and petechiae are tiny red or purple spots that appear on the skin, not the sclera.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a demand pacemaker inserted with the rate set at 72/min. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a demand pacemaker only paces when the client's heart rate falls below the set rate (in this case, 72/min). Telemetry monitoring showing QRS complexes occurring at a rate of 74/min with no pacing spikes indicates that the client's intrinsic heart rate is above the set rate, so the pacemaker is not pacing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the expected outcome of a demand pacemaker set at 72/min. Choice B shows the QRS rate below the set rate with pacing spikes, choice C shows the QRS rate at the set rate with constant spikes, and choice D indicates bradycardia with pacing spikes, all of which are not in line with the functioning of a demand pacemaker.