ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Questions
Question 1 of 9
What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.
Question 2 of 9
What is the proper technique for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection is to locate the injection site and insert the needle at a 90-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the muscle for proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a 45-degree angle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, not intramuscular. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the site after an injection can cause the medication to disperse unevenly. Choice D is incorrect as a 15-degree angle would not reach the muscle layer effectively for an IM injection.
Question 3 of 9
A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.
Question 4 of 9
What is the correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider is to state the patient's name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and then read back the order to ensure accuracy. This process helps in preventing errors and ensures that all relevant information is correctly documented. Choice B is incorrect because having a witness listen to the order is not a standard practice and may not guarantee accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as verifying the order within 12 hours may lead to delays in patient care. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the provider to verify the order during the next in-person visit could result in a significant delay in administering necessary medication.
Question 5 of 9
A client with a chest tube is post-op. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This action is crucial post-op to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure within the chest, risking complications. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours (Choice C) is important for respiratory hygiene but not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing to clear secretions (Choice D) is not the priority when assessing a chest tube post-op; ensuring the chest tube's integrity and function take precedence.
Question 6 of 9
What are the key nursing considerations for a patient with a central venous catheter?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain sterility during dressing changes. It is crucial to maintain sterility during dressing changes for patients with central venous catheters to prevent infections. Changing the dressing weekly (Choice B) is not frequent enough to prevent infections effectively. Monitoring blood pressure and fluid balance (Choice C) is important for overall patient care but not specific to central venous catheter management. While monitoring the catheter site for infection (Choice D) is important, the key consideration is to prevent infections through proper sterile techniques during dressing changes.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased bowel sounds. In hypokalemia, decreased bowel sounds are common due to slowed peristalsis. Hyperactive reflexes (choice A) and increased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are more indicative of hyperkalemia. A strong, bounding pulse (choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia.
Question 8 of 9
When receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients, which time-management strategy should the nurse plan to implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preparing a priority list of client needs for the shift is the most effective time-management strategy for a nurse receiving change-of-shift report. This approach helps the nurse identify and address the most urgent client needs first, ensuring efficient use of time. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on less time-consuming tasks first may result in crucial tasks being delayed. Choice C is incorrect as urgent client needs should be handled promptly, not postponed until the end of the shift. Choice D is inefficient as it does not prioritize tasks based on urgency, potentially leading to delays in addressing critical client needs.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.