What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

Questions 73

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN Questions

Question 1 of 9

What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse at a long-term care facility is caring for a client who requires oral suctioning. Which of the following supplies should the nurse plan to use for this task?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yankauer catheter. The Yankauer catheter is specifically designed for oral suctioning, making it the most appropriate choice for this task. Choice B, the Bulb syringe, is typically used for suctioning small amounts of liquid from the nose or mouth. Choice C, the Suction catheter, is more commonly used for deep suctioning in the trachea or bronchi. Choice D, Sterile gloves, are necessary for infection control but are not the primary supply used for oral suctioning.

Question 3 of 9

How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.

Question 4 of 9

How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse in a pediatric clinic is collecting data from a school-age child whose injuries are inconsistent with the parent's stated cause. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In cases where a child's injuries are inconsistent with the parent's stated cause, it raises concerns about possible abuse. The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to report suspected abuse to the appropriate agency. This is a legal and ethical obligation for healthcare professionals when they suspect child abuse. Providing teaching to the parents (Choice A) may not address the immediate safety concerns of the child. Documenting the injuries and monitoring the child (Choice C) is important but reporting suspected abuse takes precedence to ensure the child's safety. Counseling the parents privately (Choice D) may not be effective if abuse is suspected, as the primary focus should be on protecting the child.

Question 6 of 9

What is the key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) involves a comprehensive approach that includes administering insulin to lower blood glucose levels, monitoring blood glucose levels to ensure they are within the target range, and administering IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choosing 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate because all three interventions are essential components of DKA management. Administering insulin alone without addressing fluid status and monitoring blood glucose could lead to complications. Similarly, solely focusing on IV fluids or blood glucose monitoring without insulin administration would not effectively manage DKA.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is teaching a client who has multiple sclerosis (MS) about strategies to reduce fatigue. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Rest as needed throughout the day.' Fatigue is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS), and adequate rest is essential to manage it effectively. Resting as needed helps conserve energy and prevent fatigue from worsening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Exercise to the point of exhaustion' is not recommended as it can lead to increased fatigue. 'Avoiding physical activity' entirely is not advisable as appropriate exercise can help maintain strength and energy levels. 'Exercising only once per week' may not be sufficient to combat fatigue and maintain overall well-being in clients with MS.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a newly applied cast to the right lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a newly applied cast, the nurse should expect a capillary refill of approximately 2 seconds, as this indicates adequate circulation. A capillary refill longer than 3 seconds suggests impaired circulation, which is abnormal. Therefore, a capillary refill of 5 seconds is the finding the nurse should expect. Pitting edema and shortness of breath are not typically directly related to a newly applied cast and should not be expected findings in this scenario.

Question 9 of 9

What should a healthcare provider monitor in a client with constipation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a stool softener is the appropriate intervention for constipation. Stool softeners help to soften the stool, making it easier to pass and relieving constipation without straining the client. Monitoring bowel sounds (Choice A) may be relevant for other gastrointestinal issues but is not specifically indicated for constipation. Increasing activity (Choice B) can be helpful in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for constipation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice D) can worsen constipation by reducing mobility and promoting inactivity.

Access More Questions!

ATI LPN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI LPN Premium


$150/ 90 days