ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 9
What are the primary differences between left-sided and right-sided heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema." Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion, which manifests as symptoms like shortness of breath and cough. On the other hand, right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion and edema, often presenting as swelling in the legs and abdomen due to fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because it swaps the features of left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as it also incorrectly switches the characteristics of the two types of heart failure. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately associates left-sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure with heart failure itself, which is not a distinguishing feature.
Question 2 of 9
How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
Question 3 of 9
What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about cancer prevention. The nurse should include that frequent consumption of which of the following foods increases the risk for developing cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamb. Lamb is high in saturated fat, which is linked to an increased risk of developing cancer. Choice B (Poultry) is a lean protein source and is not associated with an increased cancer risk. Choice C (Tuna) is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which have anti-inflammatory properties that may reduce cancer risk. Choice D (Beef) is also high in saturated fat like lamb, making it a poor choice for cancer prevention.
Question 5 of 9
Which intervention is most important for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to assist with heat application and range of motion exercises. Heat application helps reduce stiffness and improve joint flexibility, while range of motion exercises help maintain mobility and prevent contractures. Massaging inflamed joints with creams and oils may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of stiffness and limited mobility in rheumatoid arthritis. Providing support to flexed joints with pillows and pads can be helpful for comfort but does not actively promote mobility. Positioning the client on their abdomen several times a day is not a standard intervention for managing rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 6 of 9
How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with fluid overload?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess a patient with fluid overload is by monitoring weight and assessing for edema. Weight monitoring helps in detecting fluid retention, and edema is a visible sign of excess fluid accumulation. Although monitoring blood pressure and auscultating lung sounds are important assessments in heart failure, they are not specific to fluid overload. Assessing for jugular venous distention is more indicative of right-sided heart failure rather than fluid overload. Monitoring oxygen saturation and checking for fluid retention are not primary assessments for fluid overload.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is teaching dietary guidelines to a client who has celiac disease. Which of the following food choices is appropriate for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, potato pancakes. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods. Potato pancakes are gluten-free, making them a suitable choice for someone with celiac disease. Choice A, white flour tortillas, contains gluten from wheat flour, making it unsuitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice C, wheat crackers, also contain gluten and should be avoided. Choice D, canned barley soup, contains barley which is a gluten-containing grain and is not appropriate for someone with celiac disease.
Question 8 of 9
How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected DVT management involves administering anticoagulants to prevent clot growth and monitoring for signs of bleeding. Elevating the limb and administering pain relief (Choice B) may help alleviate symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of preventing clot progression. Restricting mobility and applying warm compress (Choice C) could potentially dislodge the clot and worsen the condition. Administering IV fluids and providing bed rest (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing DVT.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Furrows in the tongue.' Dehydration commonly presents with furrows in the tongue due to decreased oral moisture. This physical finding indicates dehydration as the tongue loses moisture and becomes dry. Choice A, 'Bradycardia,' is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, tachycardia may be present as a compensatory mechanism. Elevated blood pressure, as mentioned in choice B, is not a typical finding in dehydration; in fact, dehydration often leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Polyuria, as in choice D, is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus, rather than dehydration.