What are the nursing interventions for a patient with a pressure ulcer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient with a pressure ulcer is to clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to the wound healing process. Choice B is incorrect because while nutrition is important for wound healing, a high-protein diet alone is not a specific intervention for a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as antibiotics are only used if there is an infection present. Choice D is also incorrect as a low-sodium diet and monitoring for fluid retention are more related to conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, not specifically pressure ulcer care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Putting the glove on the dominant hand first is a key step in maintaining sterile technique as it reduces the risk of contamination. By covering the dominant hand first, the nurse minimizes the risk of contaminating the other hand during the glove application process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B introduces the concept of a sterile gown, which is not relevant to the question about applying sterile gloves. Choice C is incorrect as putting sterile gloves last does not follow the correct sequence of steps in maintaining sterility. Choice D, while important, is not as critical as covering the dominant hand first when applying sterile gloves.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote self-care for a client who experienced an acute myocardial infarction and is experiencing fatigue. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue. Asking family members to assist with all self-care tasks (Choice A) may hinder the client's independence. Instructing the client to remain in bed until fully rested (Choice C) may lead to deconditioning and dependency. Assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client (Choice D) does not empower the client to regain independence or actively participate in self-care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Keep oxygen tanks upright at all times.' Oxygen tanks should be stored in an upright position to prevent leaks and accidents. Choice A is incorrect as smoking should never be allowed near oxygen due to the risk of fire. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen equipment should be stored in a well-ventilated area, not in a closet. Choice D is incorrect as oxygen tanks must be kept a minimum of 5 to 10 feet away from heat sources to prevent combustion. Therefore, the best practice is to keep oxygen tanks upright to ensure safety.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fine crackles. Fine crackles suggest fluid in the lungs, which could indicate a serious respiratory issue like pulmonary edema. This sound should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched wheezing sounds often caused by secretions in the larger airways, wheezing (choice C) is a high-pitched whistling sound usually caused by narrowed airways, and stridor (choice D) is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates upper airway obstruction. While these sounds also require attention, fine crackles are more indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, making them the priority for reporting in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test is used to detect neural tube defects.' An alpha-fetoprotein test is essential for screening neural tube defects in the fetus, not for confirming pregnancy, determining lung maturity, or checking for gestational diabetes. Detecting neural tube defects is crucial for early intervention and management of potential health issues in the baby.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oxygen saturation. The priority assessment in this situation is oxygen saturation because postoperative clients are at risk for respiratory complications, such as hypoxia due to factors like anesthesia effects, impaired lung function, or pain interfering with deep breathing. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to detect any respiratory compromise early. Capillary refill, bowel sounds, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority in this immediate postoperative period.