ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
What are the key nursing assessments for a patient receiving enteral feeding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension. These assessments are critical to evaluate the patient's tolerance to enteral feeding. Monitoring gastric residual volume helps determine gastric emptying, while checking for abdominal distension can identify complications like bowel obstruction. Choices B, C, and D are important aspects of enteral feeding care but are not the primary assessments. Ensuring the correct placement of the feeding tube is crucial for safety, assessing for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is essential for overall patient well-being, and elevating the head of the bed is vital to prevent aspiration. However, these are not the key assessments specifically related to enteral feeding.
Question 2 of 9
After abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric tube attached to low suctioning. The client becomes nauseated, and the nurse observes a decrease in the flow of gastric secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions would be MOST appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention when a client with a nasogastric tube experiences nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions is to aspirate the gastric contents with a syringe. This action helps relieve nausea by removing excess fluid and gas. Option A, irrigating the nasogastric tube with distilled water, is not indicated as it does not address the underlying issue of decreased gastric secretions. Option C, administering an antiemetic medication, may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the mechanical issue of decreased flow in the nasogastric tube. Option D, inserting a new nasogastric tube, is not necessary unless there are specific complications or obstructions in the current tube.
Question 3 of 9
A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.
Question 4 of 9
What are the nursing interventions for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy is to monitor INR levels and check for signs of bleeding. Monitoring the INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy, while checking for bleeding is essential due to the increased risk associated with anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect as antiplatelet therapy is not the standard treatment for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Choice C is incorrect as providing additional anticoagulation is not a direct nursing intervention in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because administering aspirin, an antiplatelet medication, along with anticoagulants can increase the risk of bleeding and is generally avoided.
Question 5 of 9
How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central venous catheter?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Regular monitoring for infection and dressing changes are essential aspects of caring for a patient with a central venous catheter. Infections are a significant risk with these catheters, so vigilant monitoring and timely dressing changes help prevent complications. Choice B is important too, but ensuring catheter patency and flushing are more focused on maintaining the functionality of the catheter rather than infection prevention. Choice C is also important for patient education, but the immediate concern for a healthcare professional is monitoring and preventing infections related to the catheter. Choice D is not directly related to the care of a central venous catheter.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is collecting data from a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago. The nurse notes excessive lochia discharge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when noting excessive lochia discharge in a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago is to perform a fundal massage. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which in turn reduces bleeding in postpartum clients. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as addressing the excessive lochia discharge is crucial to prevent complications. Checking the baby's heart rate (Choice C) is important but not the first action to manage the mother's condition. Applying an ice pack (Choice D) is not appropriate for managing excessive lochia discharge; fundal massage is the initial intervention to address this issue effectively.
Question 7 of 9
A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.
Question 8 of 9
What intervention is key when managing a client with delirium?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention when managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, dehydration, or metabolic imbalances. Administering antipsychotic medications (Choice A) may worsen delirium and should be avoided unless necessary for specific indications. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is beneficial as it can help reduce agitation and confusion in individuals with delirium. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate symptoms in delirious patients. Therefore, the priority should be on identifying and addressing reversible causes to effectively manage delirium.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.