What are the key nursing assessments for a patient receiving enteral feeding?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension. These assessments are critical to evaluate the patient's tolerance to enteral feeding. Monitoring gastric residual volume helps determine gastric emptying, while checking for abdominal distension can identify complications like bowel obstruction. Choices B, C, and D are important aspects of enteral feeding care but are not the primary assessments. Ensuring the correct placement of the feeding tube is crucial for safety, assessing for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is essential for overall patient well-being, and elevating the head of the bed is vital to prevent aspiration. However, these are not the key assessments specifically related to enteral feeding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most important consideration in managing a patient with heart failure is to monitor daily weight. This allows healthcare providers to assess fluid retention, adjust medications based on weight changes, and detect early signs of worsening heart failure. While oxygen therapy may be necessary in acute situations, it is not a routine management strategy for stable heart failure patients. Encouraging a low-sodium diet is important to manage fluid retention, but daily weight monitoring is a more direct measure of fluid status. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload is essential, but monitoring daily weight is a proactive approach to detect fluid accumulation before overt symptoms appear.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke can lead to hypotension, which is low blood pressure. This is a common symptom of heat stroke and requires immediate intervention. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), clammy skin, and bradypnea (slow breathing) are not typically associated with heat stroke. In heat stroke, the body's temperature regulation system fails, leading to a rapid rise in body temperature, which can cause various symptoms including hypotension.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Avoiding sun exposure is crucial to prevent skin irritation and burns in clients undergoing radiation therapy. Radiation therapy makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, increasing the risk of skin damage. Applying heat packs (choice A) can exacerbate skin irritation as heat can further irritate the skin that is already sensitive due to radiation. Using perfumed soap (choice B) can further irritate the skin due to its harsh chemicals, potentially worsening skin reactions. While keeping the area moist with lotion (choice C) may seem beneficial, some lotions contain ingredients that can worsen skin reactions during radiation therapy. Therefore, avoiding sun exposure to the treated area (choice D) is the most appropriate action to prevent skin irritation and damage during radiation therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.