ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.
Question 2 of 9
Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.
Question 3 of 9
What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports tingling and numbness in the hands. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tingling and numbness in the hands can indicate hypocalcemia, a common complication following a thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia requires immediate intervention to prevent severe complications like tetany and seizures. Calcium gluconate is the drug of choice for rapidly raising serum calcium levels in hypocalcemic patients. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for treating hypocalcemia or related symptoms. Potassium chloride is used to correct potassium imbalances, not calcium. Magnesium sulfate is not the appropriate treatment for hypocalcemia; it is commonly used for conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Question 5 of 9
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is concerned about weight gain during pregnancy. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with type 2 diabetes should aim for the same pregnancy weight gain as those without diabetes. Option A is too restrictive and may not be appropriate for a healthy pregnancy. Option C also imposes a specific limit without considering individual needs. Option D is incorrect as excessive weight gain can lead to complications in pregnancy, especially for individuals with diabetes.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is maintaining droplet precautions for a client who has meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when maintaining droplet precautions for a client with meningitis is to wear a surgical mask within 3 feet of the client. This is essential to prevent the transmission of meningitis via respiratory droplets. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a gown is not specifically required for droplet precautions. Choice B suggests maintaining a distance of 6 feet, which is more applicable to airborne precautions, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed and disposed of properly, but it is not related to droplet precautions specifically.
Question 7 of 9
When instructing a client with tuberculosis on home care, what is the priority teaching point?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take medication for 6-9 months.' The priority teaching point for a client with tuberculosis is to ensure they understand the importance of completing the entire course of medication. This is crucial to effectively treat and cure tuberculosis, prevent the development of drug-resistant strains, and reduce the risk of transmission to others. Choice A is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask at all times is not the priority teaching point for tuberculosis home care. Choice B is not the priority teaching point; while limiting visitors can help reduce exposure to others, completing the medication course is more critical. Choice D is not relevant to tuberculosis home care instructions.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is teaching a client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) about dietary modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Eat small, frequent meals.' Eating small, frequent meals helps manage IBS symptoms by avoiding overloading the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because increasing fiber intake may worsen symptoms in some individuals with IBS. Choice B is not a blanket recommendation for all IBS patients; some may tolerate dairy products well. Choice D is incorrect as fruits and vegetables are important sources of nutrients and should not be completely avoided unless specific triggers are identified.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the first step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step before administering a blood transfusion is to verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product. This step is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions due to incompatibility. Choice A is incorrect because blood should not be administered through an IV push for a blood transfusion. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary for the client to eat before a blood transfusion. Choice D is incorrect because administering a diuretic is not a standard practice before starting a blood transfusion.