ATI LPN
Hematologic System Assessment Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Ventricular septal defect has the following blood flow pattern:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B (Increased pulmonary blood flow) being correct: 1. Ventricular septal defect results in a communication between the left and right ventricles. 2. This causes increased blood flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle. 3. The increased blood flow is then directed to the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow. 4. This results in volume overload of the pulmonary vasculature. 5. The other choices are incorrect because a ventricular septal defect does not cause mixed blood flow, decreased pulmonary blood flow, or obstruction to blood flow from ventricles.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: inactivation of macrophages. Inflammation involves activation of macrophages to help phagocytize pathogens. Inactivation of macrophages would hinder the immune response. Increased vascular permeability, vasodilation, and pain are all typical characteristics of inflammation. Macrophages play a crucial role in the inflammatory response by engulfing and destroying pathogens, therefore, inactivation of macrophages is not a characteristic of inflammation.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following best describes the movement of a T cell through a lymph node?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because T cells enter the lymph node via the bloodstream through high endothelial venules and exit via efferent lymphatics. This process allows them to circulate between lymph nodes and peripheral tissues to survey for pathogens. Option A is incorrect because efferent lymphatics carry lymph away from the lymph node. Option B is incorrect as T cells enter via the bloodstream, not afferent lymphatics. Option C is incorrect as T cells exit via efferent lymphatics, not afferent lymphatics.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is aware that blood type O is considered the universal donor. This means all patients can receive blood type O. Knowing this, which of the following statements is correct. (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with blood type B can receive blood type B and O. This is based on the compatibility rules for blood transfusions where individuals with blood type B can safely receive blood from donors with blood type B (as there are no antibodies against type B blood present in their system) and from universal donors with blood type O (since type O blood does not contain A or B antigens). Choice B is incorrect because individuals with blood type B should not receive blood type A due to the presence of A antigens. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with blood type B should not receive blood type AB as it contains both A and B antigens. Choice D is incorrect for the same reason as choice C.
Question 5 of 5
Which statement made by the nurse indicates an understanding of the clinical manifestations of anemia from acute blood loss?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because feeling lightheaded and experiencing a drop in blood pressure upon standing are common clinical manifestations of anemia from acute blood loss. This indicates that the body is not able to adequately supply oxygen to tissues due to decreased red blood cell count. Option A is incorrect as focusing solely on high iron diet overlooks the immediate need for medical intervention. Options C and D are incomplete, thus cannot be evaluated.