ATI LPN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as Multi-Drug Therapy, which component will be most useful?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Target/client list is most useful as it provides a comprehensive list of clients in long-term regimens. Step 2: It allows for easy monitoring of individual progress and adherence to treatment plans. Step 3: Tally report (A) only provides a count, lacking specific client information. Step 4: Output report (B) may not include all necessary client details. Step 5: Individual health record (D) is specific to one client, not ideal for overall monitoring.
Question 2 of 9
Knowing that malnutrition is a common community health issue, you decided to conduct a nutritional assessment. What population is particularly vulnerable to protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, under 5-year-old children. They are particularly vulnerable to protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) due to their high nutritional needs for growth and development. Infants and young children have limited food intake capacity and are dependent on caregivers for proper nutrition. This age group is at a critical stage of growth, making them more susceptible to the negative impact of malnutrition on physical and cognitive development. Pregnant women and the elderly (choice A) have specific nutritional needs but are not as vulnerable to PEM as young children. Choices C and D are incorrect as 1-4-year-old children and school-age children have a lower risk of PEM compared to under 5-year-old children.
Question 3 of 9
A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for consultation. Which of the following substances is contraindicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retinol 200,000 IU. Retinol in high doses can cause birth defects in a developing fetus. Pregnant women should avoid excessive vitamin A intake to prevent harm to the baby. Tetanus toxoid (A), ferrous sulfate (C), and potassium iodate (D) are safe and recommended for pregnant women to support their health and the baby's development. In summary, retinol 200,000 IU is contraindicated due to the potential for birth defects, while the other choices are safe and beneficial during pregnancy.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is an appropriate site for administration of DPT vaccine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vastus lateralis muscle. The vastus lateralis is a recommended site for administration of DPT vaccine in infants and young children. It is a large muscle located in the thigh, providing a well-developed area for injection with minimal risk of hitting nerves or blood vessels. The site is easily accessible, especially for parents or caregivers administering the vaccine. Choice A (Deltoid muscle) is more commonly used in adults, not preferred for infants. Choices C (Gluteus maximus muscle) and D (Abdomen) are not recommended sites for DPT vaccine administration due to potential risk of hitting sciatic nerve in the gluteal region and abdominal organs in the abdomen, respectively.
Question 5 of 9
Primary health care is a total approach to community development. Which of the following is an indicator of success in using the primary health care approach?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as it highlights the sustainability aspect crucial in primary health care. Sustainable health programs align with the community's development level, ensuring long-term effectiveness. A: Providing free health services is not an indicator of success as sustainability and community involvement are key. B: While empowering local officials is important, it doesn't directly measure the success of the primary health care approach. C: Providing care based on identified needs is a fundamental aspect but doesn't guarantee success without sustainability.
Question 6 of 9
Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is stored in the freezer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: OPV. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) used in the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is stored in the freezer to maintain its potency. OPV is a live vaccine that requires cold storage to prevent the virus from becoming inactive. DPT, Hepatitis B vaccine, and Measles vaccine are typically stored in the refrigerator, not the freezer, as they are either killed or attenuated vaccines that remain stable at higher temperatures. Therefore, the need for freezer storage specifically points to OPV as the correct answer.
Question 7 of 9
During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have her delivery at home. After history taking and physical examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following findings disqualifies her for a home delivery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The OB score G5P3 means the client has had 5 pregnancies with 3 live births. This indicates a history of multiple pregnancies and deliveries, suggesting a higher risk for complications during labor. This would disqualify her for a home delivery due to the increased potential for obstetric emergencies. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Palmar pallor may indicate anemia but can be managed in a hospital setting. - C: Blood pressure of 130/80 is within normal range and does not necessarily disqualify her for a home delivery. - D: Cephalic presentation means the baby's head is down, which is a favorable position for delivery and does not disqualify her for a home birth.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following demonstrates intersectoral linkages?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it exemplifies intersectoral linkages by showcasing collaboration between different sectors (public health and education). This cooperation enables sharing of resources, expertise, and information to address broader community health needs. Choice A focuses on a single-sector referral system, Choice B emphasizes teamwork within the same sector, and Choice C highlights endorsement within a specific profession, all lacking the cross-sector collaboration seen in Choice D.
Question 9 of 9
What is the minimum interval between the administration of two doses of the MMR vaccine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (4 weeks) for the minimum interval between two doses of the MMR vaccine. This interval is necessary for the body to develop a strong immune response to the vaccine components. Waiting at least 4 weeks allows the immune system to properly process and respond to the initial dose before receiving the second dose. Administering the second dose too soon may result in a weaker immune response and decreased effectiveness of the vaccine. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not in line with the recommended minimum interval for effective vaccination.