ATI LPN
Immune System Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The primary healthcare provider (PCHP) has told the client that their neutrophil count is low (neutropenia). The nurse is aware this means the patient is at risk for which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: infection. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell responsible for fighting off infections. A low neutrophil count puts the client at risk for developing infections as their body's ability to fight off pathogens is compromised. Anemia (choice A) is related to low red blood cells, not white blood cells like neutrophils. Blood clots (choice B) and hemorrhage (choice C) are more related to platelets and clotting factors, not neutrophil count. Therefore, the correct answer is D as the primary concern with neutropenia is the increased susceptibility to infections.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dependent edema. In right-sided heart failure, the weakened right ventricle fails to effectively pump blood, leading to fluid retention and congestion in the systemic circulation. This results in dependent edema, typically seen in the lower extremities. Pulmonary crackles (B) are associated with left-sided heart failure due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. Shortness of breath (C) is a common symptom of both left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Chest pain (D) is not a typical finding in right-sided heart failure unless there is an underlying cause such as myocardial infarction.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is completing an assessment for a client who has a history of unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in unstable angina, chest pain typically lasts longer than 15 minutes due to reduced blood flow to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because pain in unstable angina is not always relieved by rest. Choice C is incorrect as pain can occur at rest in unstable angina. Choice D is incorrect as patients with unstable angina may experience chest pain even at rest.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Initiate weekly injections of vitamin B12. Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to poor absorption of vitamin B12. Injecting B12 bypasses the need for intrinsic factor. Increasing dietary iron (B) is not indicated for pernicious anemia. Administering oral B12 (C) is ineffective due to poor absorption. Providing folic acid supplements (D) is not the primary intervention for pernicious anemia.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is an antimalarial DMARD?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydroxychloroquine. It is an antimalarial DMARD (Disease-Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drug) commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. Hydroxychloroquine works by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system. Methotrexate (A) is a DMARD but not used for malaria. Leflunomide (C) is also a DMARD for rheumatoid arthritis. Adalimumab (D) is a biologic DMARD used for autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, but not for malaria. In summary, hydroxychloroquine is the correct choice as it is specifically indicated for treating malaria among the options provided.