ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Exam 1 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse reviews the nurses' notes from 1300, 1500, 2000, and 2020. Based on the information, which is the priority action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Without specific notes, the priority action hinges on common critical scenarios. Having the defibrillator ready at the bedside (C) is the most urgent action if the notes suggest cardiac instability (e.g., arrhythmias), as defibrillation addresses life-threatening ventricular rhythms per ACLS protocols. Ensuring endotracheal intubation readiness (A) is vital for airway compromise, but respiratory decline typically progresses slower than cardiac arrest. Preparing protamine sulfate (B) reverses heparin in bleeding, but this is less immediate unless hemorrhage is explicit. Sugammadex (D) reverses neuromuscular blockers, relevant post-surgery, not broadly urgent. C is selected as the priority due to its alignment with rapid life-saving intervention. Rationale: Cardiac arrest is a leading cause of death in critical care; a defibrillator's immediate availability can restore rhythm within minutes, critical when notes imply deteriorating vitals, outweighing preparatory actions like intubation or drug administration in urgency and impact.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a primary brain tumor has developed syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse will expect to see which clinical findings upon assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: SIADH causes excessive water retention, diluting sodium. Decreased serum sodium (D) is a hallmark finding, leading to hyponatremia. Nausea/vomiting (A) and bradycardia (C) may occur secondary to cerebral edema, but hyperthermia (B) isn't typical. D is correct for CSV. Rationale: Hyponatremia from SIADH disrupts osmolarity, causing neurological symptoms and fluid overload, a key focus in neurocritical care, distinct from temperature dysregulation, per endocrine disorder management.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing the client with subdural hematoma after a fall. The client was admitted for observation with a normal neurologic assessment on admission. Upon entering the room the nurse finds the client exhibiting seizure activity. Which is the first action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a seizure from subdural hematoma, assessing the airway (A) is the first action to ensure oxygenation, per ABC priority. Padding rails (B) is safety but secondary. Notifying (C) or leaving (D) delays care. A is correct. Rationale: Seizures risk airway obstruction; immediate airway assessment prevents hypoxia, a fundamental nursing action in neurological emergencies, guiding subsequent steps like positioning or escalation.
Question 4 of 5
Critical care nurses can best enhance the principle of autonomy by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enhancing autonomy means providing all information (C), empowering patient decision-making. Limiting info (A), assisting minimally (B), or guiding (D) reduce autonomy. C is correct. Rationale: Full disclosure respects patient self-determination, a core ethical principle, per nursing ethics, ensuring informed choices over paternalism.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury at C4. Which complication should the nurse monitor for as a priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: C4 SCI risks respiratory failure (A) from phrenic nerve impairment. Retention (B), ulcers (C), or incontinence (D) are secondary. A is correct. Rationale: Breathing loss is immediate and life-threatening, per SCI priorities, requiring ventilatory support.